Sample Test
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the
question.

1. In the human body, the lymph nodes are prevalent in the
A) neck, armpits and groin.
B) tissue surrounding the pancreas.
C) liver tissue.
D) kidney and brain tissues.
E) skin, particularly the skin of the legs.

2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a soil organism. Every time we eat a fresh salad, we
consume millions of these organisms. They usually do us no harm. However, these
same organisms can cause serious infection in persons who have been severely
burned. Such a pathogen is called
A) noncommunicable.
B) communicable
C) opportunistic.
D) commensal.

3. A scientist who studies the pattern of disease in a community and attempts to
locate its source is called a(n)
A) infectiologist.
B) epidemiologist
C) pathologist.
D) microbiologist.

4. All of the following are characteristics of endotoxins, except
A) lipo-polysaccharide-peptide.
B) usual source is Gram(­) bacteria.
C) can elicit antibody production.
D) cannot be converted to toxoid.

5. A disease such as sickle-cell anemia, which is caused by an alteration in DNA,
is referred to as a(n)
A) nutritional disease
B) infectious disease.
C) physiological disease.
D) genetic disease

6. Endotoxin shock may be observed to follow
A) injection of antitoxins to the body
B) interaction between enterotoxins and neurotoxins.
C) removal of the acetylcholine from the synapse.
D) interruption of the metabolism of Gram-positive bacteria.
E) antibiotic treatment of a disease due to Gram-negative bacteria.

7. The organisms of botulism, tetanus and diphtheria are distinguished by their
A) ability to form magnetosomes.
B) production of spores.
C) production of exotoxins.
D) ability to produce coagulase.
E) growth in anaerobic environments.

8. A disease that lingers for long periods of time is called a(n)
A) secondary disease.
B) acute disease.
C) primary disease.
D) chronic disease

9. Invasiveness refers to the ability of a parasite to
A) add to its virulence by transduction.
B) produce aggressive factors.
C) convert toxins to toxoids.
D) multiply only within anaerobic environments.
E) penetrate tissues and cause structural damage.

10. Certain microorganisms inhabit parts of the body without causing symptoms of
disease. These organisms are collectively referred to as
A) symbiotes.
B) avirulent.
C) opportunists.
D) normal flora.
Write T if the statement is true and F if the statement is false.

11. Leukocidin is a product of the body's white blood cells that reacts with
bacteria and dissolves them, thereby destroying the bacteria.

12. Altered endotoxins may be used as immunizing agents because they induce the
body to produce special antibodies called antitoxins.

13. In a subclinical infection, few symptoms are evident in the patient, whereas in
a clinical infection, the symptoms are apparent.

14. Organisms in a commensalism with the human body derive benefit from the body
but neither harm nor benefit the body.

15. The lymphocyte is a leukocyte with a single, large nucleus which exists in the
lymph nodes and functions in the immune system.
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the
question.

16. The lethal hit occurs during cell-mediated immunity and is brought about by
A) phagocytes such as macrophages.
B) antibodies produced by helper T-lymphocytes.
C) MHC antigens attached to plasma cells.
D) cytotoxic T-lymphocytes.
E) plasma cells stimulated by antigens.

17. Unprocessed antigens, that is, those that have not been phagocytized, are
______stimulants of the immune system.
A) equivalent to processed antigens as
B) much more potent than processed antigens as
C) excellent
D) poor

18. Opsonins may be described as
A) types of endotoxins produced by bacteria.
B) cellular organelles in which antibodies are produced.
C) types of bacterial exotoxins.
D) types of white blood cells.
E) antibodies that enhance the efficiency of phagocytosis.

19. Humoral immunity is the form of immunity that
A) takes place in the blood.
B) is inconsequential in the human body.
C) does not require phagocytosis to take place.
D) requires cell-to-cell contact for antigen neutralization.
E) relies on the activity of lymphokines.

20. All the following are possible antigens except
A) glucose molecules.
B) hemoglobin molecules.
C) components of bacterial flagella.
D) milk proteins.
E) polysaccharides from bacterial capsules.

21. All the following functions are associated with lymphokines except
A) they prevent phagocytes from moving away from the antigen site.
B) they increase the amount of lysosomes in the phagocyte.
C) they draw phagocytes to the antigen site.
D) they stimulate antigen-antibody reactions.
E) they activate phagocytes.

22. Immunocompetent cells are likely to be found in the body in the
A) lining of the stomach.
B) lymph nodes and spleen.
C) thymus gland.
D) bone marrow where red cells are formed.
E) membranes of the brain.

23. Specific immunologic tolerance is directed toward
A) autoantigens.
B) heterophile antigens.
C) racial antigens.
D) alloantigens.

24. The uniqueness of an individual is defined in part by the
A) MHC antigens on the surfaces of the individual's cells.
B) glycoproteins in the lymphokines that an individual forms.
C) antigens to which the individual can respond.
D) type of antibodies produced by that individual.
E) ability to produce T-lymphocytes after passage through the thymus.

25. The portion of the immunoglobulin molecule that contains the antigen binding
site can be described as all of the following, except the
A) light chain.
B) Fc fragment.
C) Fab fragment.
D) variable domain.
Write T if the statement is true and F if the statement is false.

26. The process of somatic recombination is a random mixing and matching of
antibodies to form unique antigen molecules.

27. The activation of T-lymphocytes requires that antigenic determinants bind with
antibody molecules and pull them into a cluster, a process called capping.

28. A racial immunity is exemplified by the resistance to malaria of black Africans
who possess the trait for sickle cell anemia.

29. An example of a heterophile antigen is the one found on sheep red blood cells
and infectious mononucleosis viruses.

30. On antigenic stimulation, the plasma cells revert to B-lymphocytes which
produce antibodies for humoral immunity.
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the
question.

31. Examples of second generation vaccines are those for
A) pertussis and polio.
B) measles, mumps and rubella.
C) polio.
D) streptococcal pneumonia.
E) diphtheria and tetanus.

32. The intentional injection of an attenuated virus into a person will lead to
A) naturally acquired active immunity.
B) artificially acquired active immunity.
C) artificially acquired passive immunity.
D) naturally acquired passive immunity.

33. The efficiency of a vaccine or toxoid can be increased by
A) using a substance called an adjuvant.
B) using T-lymphocytes as carriers.
C) dissolving the vaccine or toxoid in a high-salt solution.
D) injecting superficially to the skin.
E) counterinfecting with toxins.

34. The Sabin oral polio vaccine is used to confer
A) passive immunity acquired through an attenuated virus vaccine.
B) active immunity acquired through an attenuated virus vaccine.
C) active immunity acquired through an inactivated virus vaccine.
D) passive immunity acquired through an inactivated virus vaccine.

35. The titer of influenza antibodies in a patient drops from 1:5000 to 1:1500 and
probably indicates that
A) the disease is in the decline phase.
B) the infection is spreading.
C) T-lymphocytes are being activated.
D) plasma cells are beginning to produce antibodies.
E) the disease is in the prodromal stage.

36. An alcoholic extract of beef heart used in the VDRL test is known as
A) gamma globulin.
B) hemagglutinin.
C) cardiolipin.
D) antiserum.

37. All the following are true of passive immunity except
A) an injection of vaccine is usually required.
B) antibodies are introduced into the body.
C) it may be acquired by a child from its mother.
D) it may arise from an injection of antibodies.
E) convalescent serum may be administered to bring it about.

38. An important advantage of the radioimmunoassay is the
A) high sensitivity.
B) adaptability to small laboratories.
C) low hazard level.
D) low cost per test.
E) use of radioactive materials.

39. An individual generally acquires natural active immunity after
A) treatment with an oral vaccine.
B) an injection of IgA.
C) suffering an illness.
D) an injection of IgG.
E) an infusion of T-lymphocytes.

40. All the following are required to perform a florescent antibody test for
syphilis except
A) fluorescein-labeled antiglobulin antibodies.
B) syphilis spirochetes.
C) a glass slide.
D) complement from a guinea pig.
E) a sample of the patient's serum.