NAME Your name
SUBJECT 1354 TEST 1
DATE 2/20/08 PERIOD (Leave blank)
Either deliver the Scantron to my office (you may put it in the plastic tray on my door, slip it under the door, leave it in the dean's office) or mail it. But I MUST have it by the due date.
CHAPTER 1
1. Our knowledge of child development is interdisciplinary. What does this mean?
a. Our knowledge of child development is based exclusively on research conducted by people in the field of
child development.
b. Child development is not recognized as a distinct field of study.
c. It has grown through the combined efforts of people from many fields.
d. Child development is part of a larger discipline known as developmental psychology.
2. The domains in which children develop
a. involve only cognitive skills.
b. occur sequentially.
c. pertain to infants and toddlers alone.
d. combine in an integrated, holistic fashion.
3. The period of infancy and toddlerhood lasts from
a. conception to birth.
b. birth to 2 years.
c. 2 to 6 years.
d. 6 to 11 years.
4. Researchers have posited a developmental period called emerging adulthood because
a. most societies encourage prolonged immaturity.
b. younger adults have moved beyond adolescence but not yet assumed adult roles.
c. they no longer consider adolescence a useful category.
d. young people now tend to defer exploration of love, career, and personal values.
5. A good theory is a useful tool of research because it
a. stands outside cultural values and belief systems.
b. is not subject to further testing.
c. describes, explains, and predicts behavior.
d. distills complex observations into a single statement.
6. Researchers who view development as continuous would maintain that the difference between immaturity and maturity is essentially
a. longer developmental periods.
b. stages.
c. a sense of morality.
d. amount or complexity.
7. A researcher who emphasizes the role of nature in development would examine the effects of
a. inborn biological givens.
b. a single theory of development.
c. the physical and social world.
d. stages.
8. Research shows that resilient children tend to
a. come from broken families.
b. bond with grandparents.
c. have biologically endowed characteristics that help them cope with stressful events.
d. change their environments often to reduce their exposure to risk.
9. During medieval times,
a. religious writings presented contradictory depictions of children’s natures.
b. the concept of childhood was shaped by the notion of original sin.
c. children were regarded as small adults.
d. children were viewed as essentially angelic innocents.
10. John Locke encouraged parents to
a. use physical punishment to foster obedience.
b. allow children to follow their own inclinations.
c. use praise and approval as rewards.
d. keep their children’s minds a tabula rasa for as long as possible.
a. reintroducing the idea of original sin into the study of child development.
b. launching the normative approach, in which measures of behavior are taken on large numbers of
individuals and computed to represent typical development.
c. developing a more sophisticated theory of the mind as a tabula rasa.
d. challenging Darwin’s theory.
12. Psychoanalytic theorists accept the clinical, or case study, method because
a. without it, psychoanalytic theories are too vague to be tested empirically.
b. it is the best way to chart how experience imprints the blank mind.
c. it allows them to avoid the constraints of mental testing.
d. it accords with their view that the individual’s unique life history must be studied.
13. According to Piaget, children move from the preoperational stage to concrete operational stage when
a. they begin to use their senses and movement to explore the world.
b. their action patterns become symbolic though illogical.
c. their cognition transforms into more organized reasoning.
d. they develop powers of abstract, systematic reasoning.
14. Like Piaget’s theory, the information-processing approach regards children as
a. struggling to accommodate their sexual and aggressive drives to the needs of society.
b. active, sense-making beings who modify their thought in response to environmental demands.
c. involved in a process of increasingly selective imitation.
d. largely influenced by culture.
15. Developmental cognitive neuroscience has made rapid progress in
a. identifying the types of experiences that support or undermine brain development.
b. clearing away the lingering influence of psychoanalysis.
c. analyzing thought into components and reassembling those into a comprehensive theory.
d. demonstrating with greater nuance the effects of operant conditioning.
16. Ethological theory proposes that during the critical period, the child needs appropriate stimulation in order to
a. undergo the brain changes that enable various behavior patterns.
b. begin the process of psychosocial development.
c. acquire certain adaptive behaviors.
d. conform to social norms.
17. Vygotsky viewed cognitive development as a
a. process that occurs within a large organism-environment system.
b. socially mediated process in which children depend on assistance from adults.
c. process free of social or cultural contexts.
d. process that occurs rapidly during the critical period.
18. According to Bronfenbrenner, relationships at the level of the microsystem
a. are more important than those at the mesosystem level.
b. involve only parents.
c. shield children from forces that originate in the exosystem.
d. are bidirectional.
19. The dynamic systems view proposes that children
a. undergo the most profound changes when the microsystem clashes with the macrosystem.
b. reorganize their behavior in response to changes in the organism-environment relationship.
c. learn primarily through social interaction.
d. actively code, transform, and organize information.
a. not all individuals will be able to display a particular behavior in everyday life.
b. it does not distinguish between human and animal behavior.
c. it relies too heavily on self-reports.
d. too often parents intervene to make children perform a particular behavior.
21. Researchers employing the ethnographic method try to minimize their influence on the culture they are studying
by
a. confining themselves to systematic observation.
b. observing only one or two aspects of children’s experience in that culture.
c. describing, rather than interpreting, cultural meanings.
d. becoming part of the culture.
22. According to ethnographies, one of the reasons that children of immigrant parents often succeed in school is that
the
a. children inherited high intelligence from their parents.
b. parents often studied with them.
c. parents believe that education is the surest way to improve life chances.
d. children have thoroughly assimilated the values of their new homeland.
23. The correlational design enables researchers to
a. eliminate the influence of the correlation coefficient.
b. examine relationships between participants’ characteristics and their behavior or development.
c. infer cause and effect.
d. understand the interactions among independent and dependent variables.
24. The major problem with the cross-sectional design is that it
a. can be influenced by cohort effects.
b. relies too heavily on quasi-experiments.
c. does not provide evidence of change at the individual level.
d. too often yields results that cannot be assembled into general theories.
25. Microgenetic studies are difficult to conduct because
a. the time required for children to change their behavior is hard to anticipate.
b. combining longitudinal and cross-sectional designs is very difficult.
c. such studies require a large number of random assignments.
d. researchers must control so many independent variables.
CHAPTER 2
26. The paired bases of the DNA molecule
a. take shapes that are determined by phenotypes.
b. can occur in any order along its sides.
c. join in various ways across the ladder rungs.
d. determine how nurture will affect the individual.
27. Of the following factors, which is responsible for the complexity of human beings?
a. the number of human genes
b. the richness of human cytoplasm
c. the length of human chromosomes
d. the variety of proteins made by human genes
28. In the male, meiosis produces
a. one ovum.
b. several gametes.
c. four sperm.
d. two zygotes.
29. In industrialized nations, older maternal age, fertility drugs, and in vitro fertilization are major causes of (p. 55)
a. the rise in fraternal twinning.
b. slowed cell mitosis after conception.
c. a decline in the production of autosomes.
d. late fertilization of the ovum.
30. In heterozygous children,
a. traits inherited from both parents dominate.
b. gametes often combine to produce zygotes that twin.
c. Y chromosomes are more common than X chromosomes.
d. relationships between the alleles determine the phenotype.
a. modifier genes are more likely to cancel out the gene carrying the disease.
b. children who develop the disease often die before they reproduce, thus eliminating the harmful allele
from the family’s heredity.
c. heterozygous individuals often carry the dark hair gene that also makes them more resistant to certain
diseases.
d. using in vitro fertilization helps parents avoid producing harmful combinations of alleles.
32. Males are more likely to suffer from X-linked disorders because (
a. they are less likely to die in infancy than females.
b. the proportion of male births is rising in many industrialized countries.
c. they are more prone to patterns of incomplete dominance.
d. their sex chromosomes do not match.
33. After germline mutation occurs,
a. a DNA defect appears in every cell derived from the affected body cell.
b. an individual is more likely to develop a serious illness as a result of smoking.
c. the defective DNA is passed on to the next generation when the individual mates.
d. the range of possible polygenetic inheritance decreases.
34. Individuals with Down syndrome who live past age 40 often show symptoms of
a. Alzheimer’s disease.
b. trisomy 21.
c. fragile X syndrome.
d. hemophilia.
35. The pedigree that results from genetic counseling
a. traces the descent of X-linked inheritance.
b. predicts the outcome of polygenetic inheritance.
c. determines traits, such as hair and eye color, that a child will get from his or her parents.
d. uses fundamental genetic principles to estimate the likelihood that parents will have an abnormal
child.
361. New reproductive technologies have caused many to worry that
a. surrogate motherhood will no longer be available to financially needy women.
b. too much genetic information will be widely available.
c. those methods could lead to selective breeding of babies with particular traits.
d. governments’ restrictions on their use will become too stringent.
37. Amniocentesis can help identify genetic defects by
a. removing a small plug of tissue from the end of one or more chorionic villi.
b. obtaining a sample of fluid from the uterus.
c. beaming high-frequency sound waves at the uterus.
d. obtaining a sample of fetal blood.
38. By middle childhood, international adoptees placed in homes in infancy
a. have mental test scores similar to those of their nonbiological siblings.
b. fare about as well in development as their birth siblings who stayed behind.
c. are more prone to emotional difficulties.
d. tend to have problems trusting their adoptive parents.
39. According to Bronfenbrenner’s theory, forces that comprise the chronosystem confront a family with
a. powerful social values.
b. different and sometimes conflicting parenting styles.
c. constant change to which each member must adapt.
d. isolation, alienation, and the behavioral problems that can result from those.
40. For both affluent and low-SES youths, adjustment difficulties can be reduced by
a. longer school days.
b. a simple routine like eating dinner with parents.
c. more social activities with friends outside the home.
d. stronger discipline.
a. has declined slightly in the developed world.
b. is most effective in one-room rural schools.
c. has made little headway in Latin America.
d. is the most effective means of combating maternal and child mortality.
42. Of the following Western nations, which has the highest percentage of extremely poor children?
a. the United States
b. Canada
c. France
d. Switzerland
43. The Better Beginnings, Better Futures Project of Ontario, Canada, has
a. done little to alleviate the effects of poverty on children.
b. focused particularly on neighborhood recreation facilities, such as playgrounds.
c. yielded gains in family functioning, effective parenting, and children’s reading skills.
d. yet to reduce the overall frequency of emotional and behavior problems.
44. Of the following indicators, both Canada and the United States rank higher than Ireland and Singapore in
a. childhood poverty.
b. infant deaths in the first year of life.
c. teenage pregnancy rates.
d. expenditures on health care as a percentage of gross domestic product.
45. Compared with nuclear-family households, extended-family arrangements
a. add to the stress of childrearing.
b. weaken children’s relationships with people outside the family.
c. prepare girls more effectively than boys for the work of managing a separate household.
d. place more emphasis on cooperation and moral and religious values.
46. Most heritability estimates come from kinship studies that compare
a. parents and children.
b. identical and fraternal twins.
c. brothers and sisters.
d. children and their cousins.
47. Researchers generally use concordance rates to
a. study the contribution of heredity to emotional and behavioral disorders.
b. compare heritability estimates.
c. quantify the effects of parental stress on children’s learning.
d. demonstrate the extremely powerful influence of heredity on criminality.
48. The most serious criticism of heritability estimates and concordance rates is that
a. twin studies cannot necessarily be applied to the general population.
b. they tell us too much about nature and not enough about nurture.
c. the statistics they produce give no precise information about how intelligence and personality develop.
d. they tend to overestimate the influence of environmental factors on intelligence and behavior.
49. Intelligence and personality are less strongly canalized because
a. they are shaped by passive correlation.
b. they vary significantly with changes in the environment.
c. they display a narrow reaction range.
d. the process of niche-picking changes them very little.
50. The concept of epigenesis can help researchers
a. make sense of how internal stimulation triggers gene activity.
b. to extend an individual’s range of reaction.
c. trace the effects of evocative correlation.
d. understand development as a series of complex changes between nature and nurture.
51. Today, in Western industrialized nations, the issue of whether to have children is a(n)
a. unavoidable cultural demand.
b. individual choice.
c. biological given.
d. religious imperative.
52. Today, to rear a child from birth to age 18, new parents in the United States will have to spend
a. $150,000.
b. $170,000.
c. $190,000.
d. $210,000.
53. Between 1960 and the present, the average number of children per North American couple declined because of
a. fewer marriages.
b. cultural prohibitions on larger families.
c. people marrying at later ages.
d. more effective birth control, a woman’s decision to work, and marital instability.
54. In the past quarter century, births have greatly increased to women in their
a. teens.
b. twenties.
c. thirties.
d. forties.
55. About once every 28 days, in the middle of the menstrual cycle, an ovum bursts from one of the woman’s
a. ovaries.
b. fallopian tubes.
c. corpus luteum.
d. uterine linings.
56. The male produces sperm in the
a. cervix.
b. penis.
c. embryonic disk.
d. testes.
57. How long can sperm live in the fallopian tubes waiting for an ovum?
a. no more than 6 hours
b. 3 days
c. up to 6 days
d. as much as 2 weeks
58. The placenta starts to develop
a. when the yolk sac emerges to produce blood cells.
b. when villi emerge from the chorion and burrow into the uterine wall.
c. when the blastocyst develops into the trophoblast.
d. within 24 hours after implantation occurs.
59. Early in the period of the embryo, the embryonic disk develops the ectoderm, which will become the
a. nervous system.
b. muscles.
c. urinary tract.
d. circulatory system.
Grade Aid
60. By the end of the second trimester,
a. the placenta has been replaced by the vernix.
b. the organs, muscles, and nervous system have begun to connect.
c. most of the brain’s billions of neurons are in place.
d. the growth of glial cells slows and gradually stops.
a. are awake about 20 percent of the time.
b. are no longer irritated by sudden loud noises.
c. make tiny flutters that are still too light to be felt by the mother.
d. blink their eyes in reaction to nearby sounds.
62. Defects resulting from teratogens can affect emotional and social development because they
a. often cause malformations of the arms and legs.
b. can damage critical parent-child interactions, peer relations, and opportunities to explore.
c. strike during sensitive periods.
d. tend to cluster during the embryonic period.
63. Researchers suspect that high birth weight may promote which of the following conditions in adult women?
a. breast cancer
b. diabetes
c. heart disease
d. stroke
64. Several studies suggest that regular aspirin use during pregnancy is linked to
a. erythema nodosum in children.
b. high rates of vaginal cancer in daughters of mothers who used it.
c. low birth weight and infant death around the time of birth.
d. newborn withdrawal symptoms.
65. To help prevent Accutane-related fetal malformations, doctors often counsel women to
a. refrain from taking other vitamin A-derived drugs.
b. abstain from sex or use two forms of birth control.
c. monitor their vitamin A levels closely.
d. reduce their doses of Accutane.
66. The principal difference between fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) and alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder
(ARND) is that
a. FAS involves two, rather than three, facial abnormalities.
b. ARND involves only short eyelid openings.
c. FAS involves no brain injuries.
d. ARND involves at least three areas of mental functioning despite typical physical growth and absence
of facial abnormalities.
67. Of the following environmental teratogens, which is responsible for prematurity and brain damage?
a. mercury
b. PCBs
c. lead
d. carbon dioxide
68. If a pregnant woman catches rubella, her child
a. risks developing eye cataracts, organ defects, and mental retardation.
b. may be especially sensitive to herpes simplex 2.
c. has a better chance of being born with the rubella antibody.
d. will be more vulnerable to toxoplasmosis.
69. Most prenatal AIDS babies survive only
a. a few hours after birth.
b. 3 to 5 days.
c. 4 to 6 weeks.
d. 5 to 8 months.
a. it can suppress the mother’s production of folic acid.
b. stress hormones crossing the placenta can dramatically increase the fetal heart rate.
c. it can cause the mother to exercise too vigorously.
d. stress has been linked to increased risk of viral infection.
71. Inadequate prenatal care is most common among
a. women age 50 to 55.
b. white, middle-class women.
c. women who suffer from preeclampsia.
d. adolescent, low-income, and ethnic minority women.
72. Evaluations of group prenatal care have revealed that the participants
a. prefer the group leaders to be men from the participants’ culture.
b. engage in fewer health-damaging behaviors.
c. tend to be young mothers.
d. are less likely to ask questions for fear of embarrassment.
73. Men and women are more likely to develop positive images of themselves as parents when they
a. have had more than one child.
b. have experience caring for children prior to having one of their own.
c. have had good relationships with their own parents.
d. wait to have children until they feel secure in their careers.
74. Research suggests that in a troubled marriage, pregnancy
a. adds to rather than lessens family conflict.
b. can help the parents improve their relationship.
c. often prompts the mother and father to seek out models of effective parenting.
d. causes the parents to turn from their troubles and focus on preparing for the changes that will occur as soon
as the baby is born.
75. During pregnancy, women typically look to their partners for
a. expressions of masculine strength and protectiveness.
b. deeper commitment to providing a steady income.
c. emotional calm and reserve.
d. demonstrations of affection and interest in the pregnancy.
CHAPTER FOUR
76. Early contractions of the upper part of the uterus are often called prelabor because they
a. draw the baby’s head into the uterus in preparation for labor.
b. remain brief and unpredictable for several weeks.
c. force out the bloody show.
d. soften the cervix just before labor begins.
refrain from bearing down because she might
a. bruise the cervix and slow her labor.
b. prevent lightening from occurring.
c. induce false labor.
d. reharden the cervix.
78. Healthy babies adapt to the stress of childbirth by
a. dropping their heads low in the uterus to hasten their passage out.
b. curling into the so-called fetal position that protects their delicate organs.
c. reducing the amount of blood passing to the brain and heart.
d. producing cortisol and other stress hormones.
79. An Apgar score of between 4 and 6 means that the baby
a. is in good physical condition.
b. requires assistance in establishing vital signs.
c. needs emergency medical attention.
d. is close to death.
80. In Western nations, before the late 1800s, birth usually took place
a. at home.
b. in primitive hospitals.
c. with the help of a “head helper.”
d. under a doctor’s supervision.
81. Grantly Dick-Read and Fernand Lamaze
a. established the first freestanding birth centers in the 1950s.
b. introduced natural childbirth to North America.
c. argued that natural childbirth is dangerous for women.
d. developed the methods from which most natural childbirth programs draw.
82. Since 1970, the number of North American women who choose home birth has
a. risen dramatically and now exceeds the number of women in Europe.
b. remained constant at about 5 percent.
c. risen but remains small, at about 1 percent.
d. declined as doctors and hospitals have worked to discourage the practice.
83. In Canada, continuous fetal monitoring is
a. used in all home births.
b. usually reserved for babies at risk for birth complications.
c. required in most hospitals.
d. usually not recommended by certified nurse-midwives.
84. The most common labor-pain medication, the epidural analgesia,
a. allows the mother to feel contraction pressure and move her trunk and legs.
b. numbs the entire lower half of the mother’s body.
c. strengthens uterine contractions.
d. has no effect on the infant’s Apgar score.
85. A major reason for the rise in induced labors in North America is
a. the increasing rate of birth complication in older mothers.
b. that instrument deliveries have declined in popularity.
c. that many doctors and patients find them convenient.
d. improvements in delivery drugs.
a. umbilical cord wraps around the baby’s neck.
b. blastocyst implants so low that the placenta covers the cervical opening.
c. baby, just after birth, fails to start breathing.
d. placenta separates prematurely.
87. Compared with preterm infants, small-for-date infants are more likely to
a. have been born at 34 to 35 weeks.
b. be well below average in physical growth during early childhood.
c. have lower intelligence scores by middle childhood.
d. experience moderately delayed cognitive development.
88. Kangaroo care can promote preterm babies’ survival and recovery by
a. keeping the babies upright.
b. enabling parents to serve as human incubators through skin-to-skin touch.
c. regulating the babies’ oxygen intake.
d. allowing parents to feed their babies through isolettes.
89. Which of the following factors is largely responsible for the high neonatal mortality rate in the United States?
(p. 144)
a. widespread poverty and weak health-care programs for mothers and young children
b. the steady rise in maternal age
c. the high mortality rate of Inuit babies
d. increasing levels of harmful pollution
90. Several studies report that around the time of birth, first-time fathers
a. begin producing oxytocin.
b. produce less estrogen.
c. experience a drop in androgens.
d. produce less prolactin than mothers.
91. Babies display the rooting reflex when they
a. place a finger in their mouths.
b. are held under the arms.
c. face a bright light.
d. are hungry and are touched by another person.
92. Babies’ sleep-wake cycles are affected largely by
a. fullness-hunger.
b. their parents’ emotional state.
c. the time of day.
d. their sensitivity to external stimuli.
93. The incidence of SIDS peaks between ages
a. 7 days to three weeks.
b. 1 to 3 months.
c. 2 to 4 months.
d. 6 to 8 months.
94. In Western nations, the most common and effective method of soothing a crying baby is
a. swaddling.
b. taking the baby for a short car ride.
c. massaging the baby’s body.
d. lifting the baby to the shoulder and rocking or walking.
95. Newborns show through ________ that they can distinguish several basic tastes.
a. facial expressions
b. sounds that indicate preferences
c. hand and foot movements
d. sucking and pushing out with the tongue
a. the release of endorphins.
b. sleep disturbances and feeding problems.
c. decreased responsiveness to touch.
d. reflexive fear.
97. The NBAS test has enabled researchers to
a. predict intelligence into the preschool years with a high rate of success.
b. measure how newborns discriminate colors.
c. learn how different cultures’ child-rearing practices can change or maintain a baby’s reactions.
d. draw conclusions about how babies link certain smells to particular bodies or objects.
98. Researchers believe that most newborn reflexes disappear during the first six months as
a. the baby’s weight exceeds its muscle strength.
b. voluntary control over behavior increases with the development of the cerebral cortex.
c. parental interaction stimulates more advanced motor skills.
d. the child learns to block out certain kinds of stimuli.
99. Postponing parenthood until the late twenties or thirties can ease the transition to parenthood because waiting
a. reduces the chance of emotionally devastating birth complications.
b. helps to ensure that the new parents will not suffer violated expectations.
c. women have time to withdraw from their careers gradually.
d. permits couples to pursue occupational goals and gain life experience.
100. About what percent of babies in the United States and Canada are born to single mothers? )
a. 22
b. 37
c. 39
d. 42