Miscellaneous - 9

Furqan

Question:-

According to some non-Muslim scholars the word "Furqan" in the Quran that has been translated as "Criterion" in English is really a Syriac word that means redemption or salvation. How do Muslims see it?

Answer:-

The Quran insists that it is in Arabic not any other language.

"ALIF LAM RA. These are the verses (or symbols) of the Perspicuous (or clarifying) Book. Verily, We have revealed it as a Lecture (a Quran) in Arabic; per chance (or possibly) you may understand." 12:1-2

"Thus have We revealed it, a decisive judgment in Arabic, but had you followed their lusts (prejudices, fantasies, superstitions), after the knowledge that has come to you, then truly, would you have against Allah no protecting friend nor defender." 13:37

"We know well that they say: It is only some mortal who teaches him." But the tongue of him they point to (Muhammad) is outlandish, while this (Quran) is Arabic, pure and clear." 16:103

"Thus have We revealed it in an Arabic Lecture (Quran); and have displayed in it certain threats, that per chance (or possibly) they may fear evil, or it may cause them to take heed." 20:113

"And, verily, it is a revelation from the Lord of the Worlds, which the Faithful Spirit of Truth (Gabriel) has brought down upon your heart, that you may be one of the Warners, in plain Arabic language." 26:192-195

"And certainly We have set forth to men in this Quran similitudes of every sort that they may reflect, a Lecture in Arabic, without any crookedness, that they may guard (against evil)." 39:27

"A revelation from the Beneficent, the Merciful, a Book (Scripture) whereof the verses are expounded, an Arabic Quran (Lecture) for a people who understand; giving good news and a warning, but most of them turn aside so they hear not." 41:2-4

"And thus have We revealed to you an Arabic Lecture (Quran), that you may warn the Mother City (Mecca) and those around it, and that you may give warning of the Day of Gathering wherein is no doubt; when some will be in the Garden and some in the burning Fire." 42:7

"By the Book that makes things clear: Surely We have made it an Arabic Lecture (Quran) that you may understand." 43:2-3

"And before it the Book of Moses was a guide and a mercy: and this is a Book verifying it in the Arabic language that it may warn those who are unjust and as good news for the doers of good." 46:12

That is overwhelming evidence that the Quran is to be understood in Arabic. We have to go by what the Quran says and not by unjustified speculations based on dubious motives. Obviously, if the Quran is not read as it is written then those who do so are not reading the Quran but coming to false conclusions. But apart from the repeated explicit statements, it is also clear from the context that the meaning "redemption" does not fit.

Chapter 25 in the Quran is entitled Furqan. The first verse reads:-

"Blessed (Tabaraka) is the One Who sends down (nazzala) upon His slave (Abd) the Furqan (the Discriminaion) so that he can be a warner to alamin (all people or all creatures)" 25:1

Tabaraka means the purest, the most exalted, the ultimate source of all Blessing, everlasting Bounties and abundant Benefits. Here it refers more specifically to the Quran as a Criterion. It also relates to the word "Allah", which refers to the only one worthy of worship, service, obedience, adoration, submission and ultimate praise. And it also relates to the word "Abd", the one who adores, obeys, submits and serves. And this is connected with the word "ibada" that refers to worship, adoration, obedience, and service. And all these are connected with Islam which means surrender or submission to Allah and also acceptance, peace, fulfilment, completeness, wholeness, harmony contentment which are results of reconciliation.

Nazzala means to send down, like rain from heaven to the earth by which a dead earth is vitalised and springs to life and refers to spiritual resurrection.

"And We will send down of the Quran that which is a healing and a mercy to the believers, though it only increases the wrong-doers in ruin." 17:82

Furqan is derived from a word Farq which refers to separating, dividing or distinguishing. In the Quran it means making a distinction between good and evil, between right and wrong and between truth and falsehood. It requires a faculty for discernment and discrimination. There may be a similar word in Syriac but there it may not have this meaning, and in any case it is wholly irrelevant for Islam. Furqan, the Criterion, refers to the Quran, and in so far as the Prophet was sent to demonstrate it, it also refers to the Sunna. It refers to Islam as a whole. It is to be noted that the Criterion was bestowed on the Abd, who in this case is Muhammad (saw), and that he became, as a result, a Warner or one who admonishes for all people.

The whole chapter is about differentiating between truth and falsehood, in particular between what people say about the Quran and what the Quran really is and between opinions and realities, between the superficial and the essential and between vanities and what is beneficial in general. The critics and Western scholars ought to have studied this chapter before they undertook their studies and made their conclusions. However, even if they had studied this chapter it is very doubtful that they would have understood it and learnt to differentiate between thinking about things and experiencing the truth, between rationalising and perception. Religion is about values, spiritual development and adjustment to Reality.

But it is true that redemption and salvation can be obtained by following the Prophet Muhammad as the Quran affirms:-

"Say (O Muhammad): If you love Allah then follow me, and Allah will love you and forgive you your sins, for Allah is Forgiving and Merciful." 3:31

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Falsification of Scriptures

Critic:-

If the Word of God can be falsified by mere mortal men, then Allah, who is all powerful, can not even keep and protect His Holy Word pure without being corrupted? It is an insult to God, who gave the Torah to Moses and the Gospel to Jesus, to say He was unable to guard theses books from corruption. How could it be?

Comment:-

Your argument is like saying:- Because God made man, man is incorruptible and did not sin and was not expelled from heaven?

Man was sent on earth to learn. He is a mixture of good and evil, of truth and falsehood and religion exists precisely because of his ignorance, fantasies, prejudices, excuse making, self-deception and so on by reason of which he misinterprets and corrupts what he sees or deals with.

Critic:-

The Quran declares that the Torah was revealed to Moses, that it gives guidance and light, and that the prophets, rabbis and doctors of law were entrusted the PROTECTION of Allah's book. That the Torah came down from HEAVEN. The important question is: Will God entrust His Holy Word to people who would corrupt and alter it? Is God unable to protect His work? Is God unable to protect the Gospel?

Comment:-

Does the OT tell you that the Jews were perfect and never sinned? Or does it tell you about their iniquities also and how they were punished? Did Moses find them worshipping the Golden calf and did he slaughter thousands for that? Were the Jews expelled from Judah and was their Temple destroyed? Was the OT rewritten while they were in exile? Or do you have some other history?

The Torah is what was revealed to Moses. It came to earth where things do get corrupted by misinterpretation and adulteration. Is it not also true that the world changes and develops and that, therefore, different things become appropriate. As the Quran says: Allah replaces that which has been forgotten or abrogated with something similar or better.

Critic:-

For your information. Matthew was an eyewitness to the events of the life of Jesus (also known as Levi) and was one of Jesus' 12 disciples. He wrote this Gospel to his fellow Jews to prove that Jesus is the Messiah and King.

Comment:-

Are the Gospels as found today as they were in the beginning? Do these writings contain the opinions of the writers or not? Do not the various gospels sometimes contradict each other? Did Jesus say that he had much to say which they could not understand? Where in these Gospels are the doctrines of the divinity of Jesus, Trinity and Vicarious atonement that the Christian Church teaches?

Critic:-

The Quran says:- "Peace be upon me the day I was born, the day I die, and the day I get resurrected." (Surat Maryam 19:33)

Now tell me. If the Quran states that Jesus did not die on the cross, but appeared to be someone else? Who was he?

Comment:-

The Quran does not say that someone was crucified instead of Jesus. The Quran states that the events surrounding the crucifixion were obscure. There is speculation about this not knowledge. But the fact according to the NT is that the disciples THOUGHT that Jesus was dead so when he appeared to them they thought they were seeing a ghost. But Jesus assured them that he was still flesh and bones - he was obviously not dead. But the spirit of the disciples, that had been in despair, revived. Therefore, the episode of Jesus disappearing and reappearing could be taken as symbolising death and resurrection.

But Muslims know that there is to be a Day of Resurrection and Judgement and do not need to believe that Jesus died on the cross and was resurrected. This would be no proof that a general resurrection would occur. Apart from this as people will be judged after resurrection it is not at all something to be looked forward to by the wicked. It is not the same thing as Salvation.

But did you know that when the Jewish crowd was given a choice between whom to crucify, they asked that a person named "Barabbas" should be released instead of Jesus. Luke 23:19. This seems strange seeing that the name means "Son of Abbas", where Abbas means Father, a term used for God, therefore, "Son of God". The story of the substitution of Jesus on the Cross might have come from this. It is not in the Quran.

Critic:-

How could you prove anything by quotation of the words of Jesus, when you already said the Gospels were written by third party and are not the Word of God? So what is truth and false to you that you can pick and choose as you wish?

Comment:-

I did not say that everything in the NT was false. Nor do I pick and choose arbitrarily but I accept what is self-consistent and discard what contradicts the Word of God. The NT contains the words of Jesus but also the opinions of the writers. It is you who take the NT as true so why do you object if I quote it? But even so I did not say that the opinions of the writers were wrong, but that the Christian Church has misinterpreted the doctrines of Jesus.

Critic:-

You ask do I take the term "Father" literally. Of course I do. Christians do. We call God our Father. We have a God who is personal and very involved in our life.

Comment:-

You mean you were not created but begotten? That the person your mother married was not the father but God was? You are playing with words. The phrase "Son of God" is used symbolically to mean those who are led by the spirit or word of God? Read John 1:12, John 10:33-35, Romans 8:14 and Psalms 82:6.

Critic:-

You have to read John 1:1 and 1:14. You misinterpreted the verses and meaning. Romans 8:14 refer to Galatians 4:5-7 which reads:-

"To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons. And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father. Wherefore thou art no more a servant, but a son; and if a son, then an heir of God through Christ."

As for Psalms 82:6 - This Psalm calls the rulers and judges of Israel "gods" and sons of Most High". They were called gods because they represented God in executing judgement. John 10:34-36 records Jesus using this passage to defend his claims to be God.

Comment:-

I see you continue to misunderstand the Bible.

As you say they represented God on earth. That is exactly the case with Jesus. He was not God but represented God on earth. Jesus did not think he was God but that he was sent by God and that he did nothing but what God instructed him:-

"For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak." John 12:49 See also John 6:38, 57, 7:16, 8:28, 10:37-38.

John 1:1 is an opinion by John and that has been mistranslated and misinterpreted. It should read " ..and the word was with God, and the Word was God's." [Theos = God, Theou = God's]

The idea that the Word is a person is absurd unless used symbolically. For instance we can call a policeman or judge "the Law" or "the arm of the law." The Quran also speaks of the Word of God but not as a person. We read:-

"And the Word was made flesh and dwelt among us and we beheld his glory, the glory AS OF the only begotten of the Father." John 1:14.

It does not say "the glory of the only begotten". The only-begotten refers to the Word. Note:- "No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten son which is in the bosom of the Father he has declared him." John 1:18

So tell us, was Jesus on earth or not?

It seems to me that you have obviously naively taken religious language literally. However, you can continue believing whatever you fancy. As far as I am concerned the Islamic formulation supersedes the older Christian one.

But it may be that in the past people including Christians were unable to understand an invisible God and needed something to focus on, and that a person was better than an inanimate idol, a step forward from that but still idolatry.

Critic:-

Read John 5:45-47 and Surat Al-Maidah 5:46.

Comment:-

You need to understand, not just refer to the passages:-

Quran 5:46-48 read:- "And We followed up the footsteps of these (prophets) with Jesus, the son of Mary, confirming that which was before him, and We bestowed upon him the Gospel, wherein is guidance and light, verifying what was before it of the Torah, a guidance and an admonition unto those who fear (or ward off evil). Then let the people of the gospel judge by that which is revealed therein, for whoever will not judge by what Allah has revealed, these are the evil doers. And unto you (Muhammad) have We revealed the Book in truth, verifying what was before it, and preserving it."

We believe that the Injil, the Gospel, is what Jesus taught, that which he received from God according to the verse:-

"Jesus answered them, and said, My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me." John 7:16 Also see John 6:38, 57, 8:28, 10:37-38, 12:49)

As for John 5:45-47, it says: "Do not think that I will accuse you to the Father: there is one that accuseth you, even Moses, in whom ye trust. For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me; for he wrote of me. But if ye believe not his writings, how shall ye believe my words?"

I note that Christians have abandoned the doctrines and Law of Moses by their own inventions.

Critic:-

In Christianity, I am no longer a slave, but a son, and since I am a son, God has made me a heir and be part of his inheritance (Galatian 4:7) with assurance of eternal life (John 3:16).

Comment:-

Your misunderstanding has made you arrogant. The verse speaks of being an "adopted son" and not a literal son.

"But when the fullness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law (Note: MADE of a woman) to redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons. And because ye are sons, God has sent forth the spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father. Wherefore thou art no more a servant, but a son; and if a son, then an heir of God through Christ. Howbeit then when ye knew not God, ye did service unto them which by nature are no gods." Galatians 4:4-8

These verses agree with John 1:12-13 and with John 10::35 and Romans 8:14 that the phrase "son of God" refers to people who are led by the Word and Spirit of God.

"For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God. For ye have not received the spirit of bondage again to fear; but ye have received the Spirit of adoption, whereby we cry, Abba, Father." Romans 8:14-15

"And not only they, but ourselves also, which have the first fruits of the Spirit, even we ourselves groan within ourselves, waiting for the adoption, to wit, the redemption of our body." Romans 8:23

"Who are Israelites; to whom pertains the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises;." Romans 9:4

Jesus too became an adopted son when he was 30 years old and his mission began. Luke 3:22-23.

As Jesus taught, salvation is by obedience to God (Matthew 7:21-23), not belief in his crucifixion.

We Muslims are required to give up our egos and be humble and submit to God. We recognise that God loved mankind enough to send us His Words as guidance through the Messengers who also demonstrated that love for God and man in their life.

We do not think we have a right to be heirs as if there were some Law that forced God. We are not ashamed of being the slaves of Allah and wish to earn His rewards. The word “abd” (slave) is connected with “ibada”, worship. And this refers to adoration, obedience and service to God. The reward is, therefore, proportional to the correct deeds that are based on correct faith which is based on correct knowledge.

Critic:-

The Jesus described in the Quran is not the Christian Jesus. The Gospel of John tells us:-

“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word with God and the Word was God.” John 1:1

“The Word became flesh and dwelt among us and we beheld His glory" John 1:14

Comment:-

John was not Jesus and you have taken his symbolic language literally. The end of John 1:1 should read "the Word was God's." Otherwise, "the Word was with God" does not make sense – he could not be both something and with it. Nor does "In the beginning was the Word" refer to God, because God is described as Eternal, "without beginning or end".

John 1:14 says: "We beheld his glory AS OF the only begotten of the Father." It does not say "the glory of." The only begotten refers to the Word of God, not God. The "Word was made flesh" is like saying " the policeman is the Law made flesh".

Critic:-

Jesus also said he was "I AM" (the name God used for Himself in the Old Testament when speaking to Moses) – and the Jews subsequently took up stones to kill Him for blasphemy.

Comment:-

So whenever you see the words "I am" you will regard them as implying that the person claims to be God!!! Did he say: I am "I Am"

When the Jews wanted to stone him Jesus explains in John 10:33-38 by pointing to Psalms 82:6. The term gods with a small "g" and "children of God" is explained as "unto whom the Word of God came." In John 1:12-13 "sons of God" is defined as those "which were born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. And this is further defined John 3:5-7 as being spiritually revived. The name "Son of God" is defined in Romans 8:12 as those who are led by the Spirit of God.

Critic:-

I see that the concept that God take human form is alien to Islam. But, according to the Bible, in the beginning, man was created in the very image of God, (in Genesis). Genesis also refers to the Lord walking in the Garden of Eden in the cool of the day. The idea that God can have a human form is not alien to Christians at all.

Comment:-

You are taking things in a naive literal sense. Do you really think man looks like God or God looks like man? Is an image the same thing as the original? If man is an image of God, does that mean that God is an image of man? From the Islamic point of view the Spirit of God is in man, that is what gives him the attributes of God, This makes him an image. But sin, the Fall from Paradise has made the spirit dormant and it requires resurrecting through the Word of God. (We see the Quran as the Word of God as are the teachings of Jesus and Moses and other genuine Messengers (i.e. those who carry the Word)).

To illustrate: There is the Sun in heaven, it radiates rays and these form an image in the mirror. Though there is continuity here, the rays and the image are not the sun. The Though there is a continuity between God, His Word and Spirit and the image in man, the Word and Spirit are not God. John 1:18 tells you "No man has seen God at any time; the only begotten son which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him"

Critic:-

The concept that God has a triune nature is described very clearly in the New Testament. Jesus is referred to as being Devine, as is the Holy Spirit. I don't have any difficulty in accepting this as many things in this world have a triune nature. Water exists as solid (ice), liquid (water) and vapour (steam). Time itself is triune in nature, (past, present, future) - we live in a three dimensional world (height, width and depth) - so the fact that God would also have a triune nature is again, not hard for us to imagine or accept.

Comment:-

I note that you were unable to give me chapter and verse where the trinity is "clearly" stated. You are speaking about the Created world. That does not apply to the Creator. John 1:18 tells you "No man has seen God at any time; the only begotten son which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him". We know God by His Word. The only begotten refers to the Word. God is One according to his own Word. In the created world Religion is presented to us by God, His Messengers (who carry the Word) and the Spirit (that informs the Messengers and those who follow him).

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