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"THE (JEWISH) BOOK OF ACTS"

Q. Who wrote The Book of Acts?
A. (Jewish) Luke, e.g. Luke 1:3,compared with Acts 1:1.

Q. Could Luke have (then) known anything about Paul's Mystery Church of Eph 3:1-10?
A. No. In Rom 16:25,26 Paul stated,"THE REVELATION OF THE MYSTERY,WHICH WAS KEPT SECRET SINCE THE WORLD BEGAN. (BUT NOW) IS MADE MANIFEST--". And also in Eph 3:1,5,9 "FOR THIS CAUSE I PAUL,THE PRISONER OF CHRIST JESUS FOR YOU GENTILES. IF YE HAVE HEARD OF THE DISP- PENSATION OF THE GRACE OF GOD TO YOU-WARD. HOW THAT BY REVELATION,.Gal 1:1,11,12,HE MADE KNOWN UNTO (ME) THE MYSTERY,AS I WROTE AFORE IN FEW WORDS",e.g.as in Rom 16:25,26,above.
WHEREBY,WHEN YE READ,YE MAY UNDERSTAND (MY) KNOWLEDGE IN THE MYSTERY OF CHRIST. WHICH IN OTHER AGES,WAS NOT MADE KNOWN UNTO THE SONS OF MEN,AS IT IS (NOW) REVEALED UNTO HIS HOLY APOSTLES AND PROPHETS BY THE SPIRIT. AND TO MAKE ALL MEN SEE,WHAT IS THE FELLOWSHIP OF THE MYSTERY,WHICH FROM THE BEGINNING OF THE WORLD,HATH BEEN HID IN GOD".

Q. In light of the foregoing truth. What is The Book of Acts about?
A. Contrary to almost universal teaching. The Book of Acts,is not a (Church) epistle, concerning the creation of our Mystery Church of Eph 3:1-10,.at the annual,exclusively Jewish Pentecost,of Acts Ch 2! But it is solely the (second) "re-offering" of Israel's rejected Messiah,to National Israel,in His resurrection. As He was dying at Calvary,Christ Jesus,as National Israel's Highest Priest,offered up His "intercessory prayer" of Luke 23:34--"FATHER FORGIVE THEM,FOR THEY KNOW NOT WHAT THEY DO". In so doing,Christ Jesus was "appealing to" the Levitical Law of Ignorance" of Num 15:22-30. To "forstall" God's Judgement upon National Israel,for what National Israel had done to Christ Jesus,at Calvary!
Being "IMMANUEL,GOD WITH US",of Matt 1:22-23. Christ's "intercessory prayer"
entered into His Own Bosom,e.g.Ps 35:13,and was "immediately granted" by Him.
As a result of "the granting",of the foregoing intercessory prayer. A period of Divine Amnesty was then granted to National Israel,of approximately 30 years,or the entire Acts period. During which time,Israel's Messiah would be "re-offered" to Israel,in His "resurrected" form! THAT,is precisely why The Book of Acts,is a strictly Jewish epistle,addressed solely to The Jewish Nation of Israel,AND,their Gentile proselytes to Judahism,e.g.as follows:
Acts 2:5,10, "AND THERE WERE DWELLING AT JERUSALEM,JEWS,DEVOUT MEN OUT OF EVERY NATION UNDER HEAVEN. JEWS,AND RELIGIOUS PROSELYTES".
Acts 2:14 "YE MEN OF JUDAEA AND ALL YE THAT DWELL AT JERUSALEM--".
Acts 2:22 "YE MEN OF ISRAEL--".
Acts 2:36 "THEREFORE,LET ALL THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL KNOW ASSUREDLY--".
Acts 3:12 "YE MEN OF ISRAEL--".
Acts 4:8 "--YE RULERS OF THE PEOPLE,AND ELDERS OF ISRAEL--".
Acts 5:30,31 "THE GOD OF OUR FATHERS RAISED UP JESUS--FOR TO GIVE REPENTANCE TO ISRAEL".
Acts 13:43 "NOW WHEN THE CONGREGATION WAS BROKEN UP. MANY OF THE JEWS--AND RE LIGIOUS PROSELYTES--FOLLOWED PAUL AND BARNABAS".

Who could read the foregoing verses,and fail to see and accept. That THAT,taking place in ALL of Acts,is directed solely to Jews,and Gentile proselytes to Judahism? Written FOR us. But not written TO us.

Q. Were The Jewish Apostles,attending Christ's Ascension of Acts 1:1-11,expecting to "start" Our Mystery Church,and "convert" The Gentile World to it?
A. No. Nor,as we shall see,were they "commissioned" to do so,at Matt 28:19,20,
Mark 16:15-18. Carefully note their question of Acts 1:6. "WHEN THEY THEREFORE
WERE COME TOGETHER THEY ASKED OF HIM SAYING. LORD,WILT THOU AT THIS TIME,RESTORE AGAIN THE KINGDOM TO ISRAEL"?
Those (still Jewish) Apostles,having (supposedly) just received The Great Commissio of Mattt 28:19,20? Mark 16:15-18,to (supposedly) "start" Our Mystery Church,by evangelizing the entire,then known Gentile world at large. Apparently knew of no such "a commission",but were simply looking for Israel's risen Messiah,"TO RESTORE AGAIN (the strictly Jewish) KINGDOM,TO ISRAEL". See Lam 5:16,Hos 3:4,with Luke 1:32,33, Matt 19:27,30,describing that strictly Jewish Kingdom.

Q. But did not the so called Great Commission,of Matt28:19,20, Mark 16:15-18,
tell those same Jewish Apostles,"TO GO YE THEREFORE,AND TEACH ALL NATIONS"?
And,"GO YE INTO ALL THE WORLD AND PREACH THE GOSPEL,TO EVERY CREATURE"?
A. Yes. But one must examine each of those foregoing verses,IN THE ORIGINAL
GREEK. And then. LET THE WORD OF GOD,EXPLAIN THE WORD OF GOD,as follows:
(1). In Matt 10:5,6,Christ Jesus (first) commissioned those same (Jewish) Apostles,as follows."THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT FORTH AND COMMANDED THEM SAYING. (GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES,AND INTO ANY CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE NOT,BUT GO RATHER,TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL"--"BUT HE ANSWERED (the Gentile Sypophoenician woman),AND SAID. (I AM NOT SENT,BUT UNTO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL. IT IS NOT RIGHT,TO TAKE THE CHILDREN (Israel's) BREAD,AND CAST IT TO (Gentile) DOGS"). Yes,Jesus called her,A GENTILE DOG!
And in Rom 15:8. "NOW I SAY,THAT CHRIST JESUS WAS A MINISTER OF THE CIRCUMCISION--",i.e. Christ Jesus,was A Jewish Rabbi! Not a Protestant Church minister.
(2). So. One must ask themself.----TO WHOM,was Jesus (exclusively) sent? Christ
gave the foregoing answer. "I AM NOT SENT,BUT UNTO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL". "GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES". Plain enough indeed. (3). Now one must ask themself.---TO WHOM,did the (resurrected) Christ Jesus "exclusively re-send" His Jewish Apostles,at Matt 28:19,20; Mark 16:15-18?
John 20:21. "(AS),MY FATHER HATH SENT ME. (EVEN SO),SEND I YOU". Once again,Jesus simply "re-commissioned" His Jewish Apostles TO GO ONLY TO "JEWS" IN ALL NATIONS)
(4). Yes,the foregoing verses set "the limited scope" of the so called Great Commission of Matt 28:19,20, Mark 16:15:15-18. Which could only mean. That Christ recommissioned His Jewish Apostles,"TO GO YE THEREFORE AND TEACH ALL (12 Jewish) NATIONS",that had become dispersed IN all Gentile nations,James 1:1, 1 Pet 1:1.
And,"TO GO YE (INT0) ALL THE WORLD" to do so. He did not say "TO GO (UNTO) ALL THE WORLD" to do so. The Greek word is indeed Eis-"INTO",and not "UNTO",as commonly so suggested! According to John 20:21,those Jewish Apostles were "TO PREACH THE GOSPEL,TO EVERY (JEWISH) CREATURE,(IN) ALL THE GENTILE WORLD".

Note: Here it is of the utmost importance to agree,THAT AT MATT 16:20,CHRIST
JESUS HAD (TEMPORARILY SUSPENDED) HIS (JEWISH KINGDOM COMMISSION) OF MATT 10:5,6,
TOGETHER,WITH ALL OF IT'S EXCLUSIVE "SIGN GIFTS OF THE (JEWISH) BELIEVERS",OF MATT 10:8. (AND),THE REQUIRED JEWISH RITUAL OF WATER BAPTISM THAT ACCOMPANIED IT,i.e.(UNTIL),His Matt Ch 28 resurrection! Whereupon,the resurrected Christ Jesus,"simply re-started" His foregoing Jewish Kingdom Commission of Matt Ch 10,with all of the sign gifts of the Jewish believers,plus the Jewish ritual of water baptism by immersion,that always accompanied it. .

Q. What occured at the Ascension of Christ Jesus,at Acts 1:8-11?
A. Christ's earthly ministry ended.i.e. Christ's 2nd Person,Holy Trinity Role Form,(AS) The Obedient Son,and Obedient Servant,of God The Father,1st Person Holy Trinity. Then replaced,by the unique ministry of God,The Holy Spirit Comforter,3rd Person,Holy Trinity,Acts 1:5, 2:1-4, John 14:16-26, 15:26,27, 16:7-15.

Q. Was Peter's decision to "replace" Judas Iscariot (as one of the Twelve) at Acts 1:15-26 a scripturally correct decision?
A. Yes. Ps 109:8 "LET HIS DAYS BE FEW,AND LET ANOTHER TAKE HIS OFFICE". Ps 69:25 "FOR IT IS WRITTEN IN THE BOOK OF PSALMS. LET HIS HABITATION BE DESOLATE AND LET NO MAN DWELL THEREIN. AND HIS OVERSEERSHIP,LET ANOTHER MAN TAKE".
Note: When dealing with National Israel,God's "symbolic number" for Israel was always twelve,or the multiple of twelve,e.g. Twelve Tribes. Twelve Apostles.Twelve Precious Stones. Twelve Foundations of New Jerusalem. Twelve Gates.Twelve Pearls. New Jerusalem,being 12,000 furlongs long,12,000 furlongs wide,12;000 furlongs high,with a wall surrounding it 144 cubits high. All multiples,of National Israel's symbolic number tewlve. And there are many more.
With the death of Judas Iscariot,Israel's number had been reduced to the number eleven! Replacing missing Judas with Matthias,brought Israel's symbolic number back to (it's then required number) of twelve.
Here it must also be carefully noted. That as God (transitionally) set National Israel's Judahism aside,at Acts 13:46,18:6,and 28:28. God no longer required Israel's symbolic number of (twelve) Apostles. But thereafter,let it,and them,decrease by attrition,e.g. Beginning with the death of James,at Acts 12:2,onward.
National Israel's APOSTOLIC SUCCESSION OF (THE TWELVE),ended at (the third,
and final) setting aside of National Israel's Judahism,at Acts 28:28.

Q. Could the Apostle Paul have ever "been" one of The Twelve?
A. No. Acts 1:21,22 "WHEREFORE,OF THESE MEN WHICH HAVE COMPANIED WITH US ALL THE TIME,THAT THE LORD JESUS WENT IN AND OUT AMONG US. BEGINNING,FROM THE BAPTISM OF JOHN,UNTO THE SAME DAY THAT HE WAS TAKEN UP FROM US. MUST ONE BE ORDAINED TO BE A WITNESS WITH US OF HIS RESURRECTION".
Note: Paul,was not even "saved",until Acts Ch 9. Nearly ten years after Christ's Ascension
at Acts 1:8-11. Thus,he could never have been "qualified" to be (one of the twelve), according to the foregoing verses.

Q. What was The Pentecost,of Acts Ch 2?
A. The word Pentecost,is taken from the Greek word Pentekostos. The prefix Pente, meaning fifty. In the case of it's use in Acts 2:1,it refers to the (50),fifty days,elapsing between Christ's resurrection,and His Ascension at Acts 1:8-11,i.e.as symbolically so prophesied in the following Old Testament verses:
Lev 23:15-22. "AND YE SHALL COUNT UNTO YOU,--FROM THE MORROW AFTER THE SABBATH, FROM THE DAY THAT YE BROUGHT THE SHEAF OF THE WAVE OFFERING--SEVEN SABBATHS SHALL BE COMPLETE. EVEN UNTO THE MORROW,AFTER THE SEVENTH SABBATH,SHALL YE NUMBER
(FIFTY DAYS). AND YE SHALL OFFER A NEW MEAT OFFERING UNTO THE LORD. YE SHALL BRING OUT OF YOUR HABITATIONS TWO WAVE LOAVES OF TWO TENTH DEALS. THEY SHALL BE OF FINE FLOUR. THEY SHALL BE BAKEN WITH LEAVEN. (THEY ARE THE FIRSTFRUITS UNTO THE LORD? i.e.As referring to the simultaneous resurrection of Christ Jesus,AND the 144,000 of Rev 7:1-8 and Rev 14:1-4, with Lev 23:9-22 and Matt 27:51-53.
Note: The seven sabbaths,mentioned above,and in Luke 18:12,and Matt 28:1,are The Feast of Weeks,mentioned in Ex 34:22. As such,that taking place at The Pentecost of Acts Ch 2,was a strictly Jewish,(annual) Feast of Weeks. NOT ONE GENTILE WAS EVER PERMITTED TO TAKE PART IN IT. Unless,and until. They became a circumcised Gentile proselyte to Judahism,e.g.Acts 2:10, Acts 13:43.

Q. What were "THE OTHER TONGUES" being spoken at The Jewish Pentecost Acts 2?
A. The Greek word for "OTHER",in Acts 2:4,is HETEROS,meaning "DIFFERENT"!
and plainly defined as follows: "NOW WHEN THIS WAS NOISED ABROAD THE MULTITUDE CAME TOGETHER AND WERE CONFOUNDED,(BECAUSE THAT EVERY MAN HEARD THEM SPEAK,IN HIS OWN LANGUAGE"--"AND HOW
HEAR WE EVERY MAN,IN HIS OWN TONGUE (i.e. Gr Dialektos,or dialects) WHEREIN WE WERE BORN". WE DO HEAR THEM SPEAK (IN OUR TONGUES THE WONDERFUL WORKS OF GOD".) And not uttering some unmeaningful,un- intelligble,Pentecostalist gibberish!
Acts 1:9-11,lists the forgoing (15 foreign languages,and foreign dialects),in
which "THE TONGUES" of Acts 1:4 etc,were spoken,by The Twelve (Jewish) Apostles".

Q. Why,at The Jewish Pentecost of Acts Ch 2,were those (Jewish) Apostles,given The Divine Gift of speaking in 15 foreign languages,and foreign dialects?
A. THAT,was in fulfillment of the following Jewish prophesy:
Isa 28:11 "FOR WITH STAMMERING LIPS,AND ANOTHER TONGUE,WILL HE SPEAK TO THIS PEOPLE",i.e. The (Jewish) Nation of Israel in context. Why so?
1 Cor 14:22 "TONGUES ARE FOR A SIGN". And solely to whom?
1 Cor 1:22 "FOR (THE JEWS) REQUIRE A SIGN". And do (we) also get those signs?
No. 2 Cor 5:7 "FOR (WE) WALK BY FAITH,NOT BY SIGHT".
It's really very simple. (THE JEWS),REQUIRED SIGNS FROM GOD. And God's ways being equal--Ezek 18:25,29, 33:17,20. GOD ALWAYS REQUIRED SIGNS,FROM (THE JEWS). THE JEWS,had to "show" their already inworked,saving faith. By their "outward,visible,good works",that should "quite naturally" accompany it,e.g.James Ch 2.
WE,on the other hand,do not require signs from God. And again,God's ways being equal,
God,does not require outward,visible signs,from us. So states 2 Cor 5:7.

Q. Does The Bible mention "(UNKNOWN) TONGUES"?
A. Yes. This expression,occurs in some paragraphs,in Rom Ch 14 of The K.J.V.
and other versions. However. The word "UNKNOWN" is there shown,as being Italicized.
Meaning,that it nowhere appears in ancient M.S.S.but has been wrongly inserted
by the mis-translators of that particular version. The "OTHER TONGUES",being
spoken at The Strictly Jewish Pentecost of Acts Ch 2,were not "UNKNOWN TONGUES"
but were readily understood by those present,who spoke that particular foreign language,
or foreign dialect! As shown earlier in this study.

Q. If the speaking in tongues,(is not) for our present dispensation. Why did Pau? say,in 1 Cor 14:17."I THANK MY GOD,I SPEAK WITH TONGUES MORE THAN YOU ALL",--and instruct others there present,to also continue to do so?
A. The Apostle did so,for the following reasons:
(1) Contrary to most teachings. 1st and 2nd Cor,are not Mystery Church epistles,but are solely Jewish epistles,directed solely to those Jews and Gentiles,that Paul had converted to (Judahism),at Acts 18:1-11! Those two (Jewish) epistles,were written by Paul,DURING the Acts period,PRIOR,to his 3rd,and final,setting aside of Israel's Judahism,at Acts 28:28. Thus,all of National Israel's sign gifts of Matt 10:8; Mark 16:15-18,were still very much "in view".
(2). DURING,the entire Acts period,the Apostle Paul was given a very unique "two-fold ministry". See 1 Cor 9:19-23,i.e. That when Paul WENT TO JEWS,he could,and did,ACT LIKE A JEW,UNDER THE LAWS OF MOSES. But,when Paul WENT TO THE GENTILES. Paul could,and did,ACT LIKE A GENTILE (NOT UNDER THE LAWS OF MOSES). THE JEWS,would not accept anyone's conversion to Judahism. That was,unless,and until,they (saw) that convert,display (all) of Israel's sign gifts of Matt 10:8, Mark 16:15-18. So Paul "THANKED GOD,THAT HE SPOKE IN TONGUES MORE THAN THEM ALL",and had received Israel's sign of water baptism,at his conversion "to Judahism",at Acts Ch 9. Then,and only then,did JEWS accept Paul's ministry. Failure to note,Paul's foregoing unique,written and literal ministry,to BOTH Jews,and Gentile proselytes,(during) the Acts period,has led to much doctrinal error,con- cerning Paul's "unique,dual ministry",mentioned earlier.
(3). Dispensations never overlap. But at certain times in biblical history,some "lives" overlapped a sudden change in dispensations,e.g.that which occured to Moses,and his (then) Gentile followers,at Mt. Sinai,i.e. When The Gentile Church,was "replaced" by The Jewish Church,and the dispensation of Grace was "replaced"by the dispensation of law! Because the lives of Moses and his Gentile followers would then,and there,"overlap" that sudden change in dispensations. They were given the unique choice of WHICH DISPENSATION "to live under"! Moses,and his (then Gentile) followers said. "GIVE US THE LAW,AND WE WILL KEEP IT"! They,did not need to be spiritually re-saved by so deciding. But only that they would be then required,"to live under",the well over 660 newly imposed "commandments","judgements",and" ordinances",of their (entirely new),Old Testament Covenant of Law.
(4). The same,applied to those Jews and Gentile proselytes of the Acts period,whose lives,like those mentioned above would "overlap",the three phase,setting aside of The Old Testament Covenant of Law,at Acts 13:46,18:6,28:28,and the (simultaneous) creation of our Mystery Church,of Eph 3:1-10.
(5) In 1st,and 2nd Corinthians,Paul could,and did,make the same unique offer to those JEWS,of the Acts period,i.e.to chose WHICH DISPENSATION they would prefer
"to live under". That unique offer,of 1 Cor Ch 12 etc,would be fully withdrawn by Paul,at his (3rd,and final) setting aside of Israel's Judahism,at Acts 28:28.
(6). Paul,told the foregoing Jews,and Gentile proselytes to Judahism. That those things which they had "under the law",was GOOD. But as Paul went on to say,in 1 Cor 12:31,"YET SHOW I UNTO YOU,(A MORE EXCELLENT WAY)". The Book of Hebrews,sets forth "THE MORE EXCELLENT WAY",between "living under" the dispensation of law,or,"living under" the dispensation of Grace. Now,note that stated earlier. Paul's unique,two-fold ministry,of the Acts period,of 1 Cor 9:19-23,would end,
at the (3rd and final),setting aside of Israel's Judahism,at Acts 28:28!

Q. Who were "THE AFAR OFF",mentioned in Acts 2:39?
A. They were The Jewish Diaspora,i.e.the Jewish Dispersed Ones,of James 1:1,
1 Pet 1:1,and Dan 9:7. "TO THE MEN OF JUDAH,AND TO THE INHABITANTS OF JERUSALEM,AND UNTO ALL ISRAEL,THAT ARE NEAR,(AND THAT ARE AFAR OFF),THROUGH ALL THE COUNTRIES WHITHER THOU HAST DRIVEN THEM".

Q. To what "CHURCH",did the Lord "add" the members mentioned in Acts 2:41,47
A. Acts 7:38 "THIS IS HE,THAT WAS IN THE CHURCH IN THE WILDERNESS. WITH THE ANGEL WHICH SPAKE TO HIM IN THE MT SINAI. AND WITH OUR FATHERS,WHICH RECEIVED THE LIVELY ORACLES".
Note: For one "to add to" anything,it would have to be already in existence.
And so it was with "THE CHURCH", to which God "ADDED DAILY",at the Jewish
Pentecost of Acts Ch 2. THAT,was the ancient "CHURCH",or "ASSEMBLY OF JEWISH CALLED OUT ONES",which Moses "started" at Mt Sinai",e.g. Acts 15:21. As fully identified,as being the 7,ancient,Asian churches so named,in Rev 1:11,and not
the European churches,"started" by the Apostle Paul,following his "conversion"
of Acts Ch 9. Thus,The Pentecostal Church,of Acts Ch 2,WAS The (Jewish) Church,
"started by Moses",at Mt Sinai and WAS NOT our Mystery Church,of Eph 3:1-10.
Now,carefully note: That in Acts 2:16,Peter confirmed the foregoing truths,when he identified WHAT was occuring at The Jewish Pentecost of Acts Ch 2,vs 16 "THIS,IS THAT,WHICH WAS SPOKEN BY THE PROPHET JOEL",i.e.in Joel Ch 2. If you understand what "THIS" is,said Peter. You will understand what "THAT" is!
In other words,said Peter. "THIS",that you see and hear,taking place at our Jewish Pentecost of Acts Ch 2,is "THAT",which The Old Testament Jewish Prophet Joel said would occur. That is---ACCORDING TO JEWISH (PROPHESIED) HISTORY.
But now carefully note this. That in Eph 3:1-10, Paul stated. That "OUR CHURCH",IS AN (UN-PROPHESIED) MYSTERY". "WHICH IN OTHER AGES,WAS NOT MADE
KNOWN UNTO THE SONS OF MEN (including Joel),i.e. "A MYSTERY CHURCH, WHICH FROM THE BEGINNING OF THE WORLD,HATH BEEN HID (not in Holy Writ,but rather) "HID IN GOD". Rom 16:25,"--THE MYSTERY CHURCH,WHICH WAS KEPT SECRET,SINCE THE WORLD BEGAN". A MYSTERY CHURCH,only (first) revealed in and through Paul,Eph 3:1-10,who was not even saved,until nearly eight years (after) The Jewish Pentecost of Acts Ch 2. Think upon all of the foregoing--very carefully.

Q. Was "THE BREAKING OF BREAD" at Acts 2:42-47,an "observing" of the so called
Lord's Supper,of Matt 26:14-29?
A. No. It was simply "the sharing of a common daily meal" (vs 46). See also Luke 24:35, Acts 20:7-11, Acts 27:33-35,for similar such "meal sharings".

Q. Were the strictly Jewish,sign gifts of the Jewish believer,still "in view",in the Jewish Church,of Acts Ch 2?"
A. Yes. Acts 2:43 "AND FEAR CAME UPON EVERY SOUL. AND MANY WONDERS AND SIGNS WERE DONE BY THE (JEWISH) APOSTLES",in context.

Q. How often,did the Acts Ch 2 (Jewish Church) worship. And where,did they hold
those "Jewish services"?
A. Acts 2:46,47 "AND THEY (CONTINUING DAILY) WITH ONE ACCORD IN THE (Jewish) TEMPLE,AND BREAKING BREAD FROM HOUSE TO HOUSE. DID EAT THEIR MEAT WITH GLADNESS. PRAISING GOD,AND HAVING FAVOUR WITH ALL THE (Jewish) PEOPLE. AND THE LORD ADDED TO THE CHURCH (DAILY),SUCH AS SHOULD BE SAVED". See Acts 5:42, 6:7,also.

Q. Did Peter,offer (National Israel),the (immediate) return,of Israel's Messiah,
i.e. "TO RESTORE AGAIN THE (Jewish) KINGDOM OF ISRAEL",(if) National Israel
would come to A NATIONAL REPENTANCE,by accepting the (risen) Christ Jesus,as
National Israel's (risen) Messiah?
A. Yes. Acts 3:17-21 "AND NOW BRETHREN,I WOT THAT THROUGH IGNO- RANCE YE DID IT,AS DID ALSO YOUR RULERS. REPENT YE THEREFFORE AND BE CONVERTED. THAT YOUR SINS MAY BE BLOTTED OUT WHEN THE TIMES OF REFRESHING SHALL COME FROM THE PRESENCE OF THE LORD. (AND HE SHALL SEND CHRIST JESUS),WHICH BEFORE WAS PREACHED UNTO YOU. WHOM THE HEVEN MUST RECEIVE,UNTIL THE TIMES OF RESTITUTION OF ALL THINGS".

Q. How did NATIONAL ISRAEL "respond" to Peter's foregoing offer?
A. Many individual Jews accepted it,Acts 2:41,47; Acts 4:4. And even some of Israel's rulers,also accepted it,Acts 6:7. But NATIONAL ISREAL,repeatedly refused to so so,and would be transitionally set aside,at Acts 13:46;18:6;28:28.

Q. Did The Acts Ch 2,Pentecostal,Jewish Church,practice "communal living"?
A. Yes. Acts 2:44 "AND ALL THAT BELIEVED WERE TOGETHER,AND HAD ALL THINGS COMMON. AND SOLD THEIR POSSESSIONS AND GOODS,AND PARTED THEM TO ALL MEN,AS EVERY MAN HAD NEED". See Acts 4:32-37. Modern day Pentecostalist,and others,"take" Acts Ch 2,"as church program",but ignore it's "communal program",and Acts 4:32-37. National Israel,always practiced "communal living"! Little wonder then,that the Pentecostal,(Jewish Church) did so,in the foregoing verses. But it should be obvious,that the foregoing "communal program",is not that of our Mystery Church,programs,of Eph 3:1-10,and Eph 4:4-6.

Q. HOW was The Holy Spirit "received",by the Pentecostal Jewish Church,of Acts 2?
A. "By the laying on of the hands" of the (Jewish) Apostles,e.g. Acts 8:5-18.

Q. WHAT HAPPENED,at Phillip`s conversion of the Ethiopian eunuch,at Acts Ch 8?
A. Phillip,simply converted the Etiopian eunuch to "Judahism",which is the basic belief. That Israel's Messiah would come in and through the tribe of Judah,and not the Priestly tribe of Levi,Gen 48:8-10, Ps 78:67,68, 1 Chron 28:4. Also read Heb 7:14,in context. Phillip,merely convinced the Ethiopian eunuch,that Christ Jesus was indeed that prophesied Jewish Messiah,Acts 8:37. It should also be carefully noted,that at that point in time and place,the Jewish Levitical Law of the separation,of Jews and Gentiles,was still very much in effect. See Acts 10:28,in context! The eunuch,could,and did,"COME TO" Jewish Phillip,Acts 8:27. But Phillip,could not THEN have "GONE TO" the Gentile eunuch. UNTIL,Acts 10:28!

Q. What happened,at Paul's,i.e.Saul's conversion,at Acts Ch 9?
A. Saul,merely ceased to be "a Jewish Pharisee",that did not believe in Christ Jesus,as National Israel's Messiah. And became "a convert to Judahism",which is belief in Christ Jesus,as National Israel's Messiah,e.g.Acts 9:20,22. Yes,Saul gave up "Phariseeism",for "Judahism". Paul was still "an Israelite",at that point in time and place,but he THEN,knew nothing concerning Our Mystery Church,of Eph 3:1-10, Rom 16:25,26,UNTIL his later revelation,of Gal 1:1,11,12.

Q. Upon his conversion "to Judahism",at Acts Ch 9. Was Paul then and there,given
"his unique,two fold ministry",of 1 Cor 9:19-23?
A. Yes. Acts 9:15. But "it" would not "take effect",until "the gospel order change?, occur- ing at Acts 10:28! When for the first time (since Mt Sinai),a Jew could (GO TO) a Gentile,for proselytizing,or socializing purposes!

Q. Why was Paul "water baptized",at his Acts Ch 9 conversion?
A. Paul,was still "an Israelite" by birth,and water baptism was still a required portion,of one's conversion to Judahism.e.g. Matt 28:19,20, Mark 16:15-18,and Acts 2:38. "It" was still used,to call National Israel to National repentance,e.g.Matt 3:1,8,11. AND,as Israel's "new birth access",to the strictly Jewish (millenial) Kingdom of Heaven,of Matt 3:2.

Q. Did Paul's later ministry,of Our Mystery Church Gospel,also include that of "water baptism"?
A. No. 1 Cor 1:14-17 "--FOR CHRIST SENT ME NOT TO BAPTIZE,BUT TO PREACH THE GOSPEL". Pau? HAD BEEN "water baptizing",but Pau? obviously CEASED to do so,as plainy so stated in the foregoing verse.
Q. During the Acts period,could Peter,Paul,and the other Jewish Apostles still perform miracles,according to their (Jewish) sign gifts,of Matt 10:8; Mark 16:17 and 18?
A. Yes. Acts 2:43 "AND MANY WONDERS AND SIGNS WERE DONE BY APOSTLES". Acts 5:12 "BY THE HANDS OF THE APOSTLES,WERE MANY SIGNS AND WONDERS WROUGHT AMONG THE PEOPLE", Acts 4:30 "BY STRETCHING FORTH THY HAND TO HEAL,AND THAT SIGNS AND WON-
DERS MAY BE DONE.BY THE NAME OF THY HOLY CHILD JESUS".
Acts 9:32-43 (Aneas healed,and Tabitha raised from the dead).
Acts 14:3 "AND GRANTED SIGNS AND WONDERS,TO BE DONE BY THEIR HANDS".
Acts 14:8-10 (Paul,healed the man,crippled from his mother's womb.
Acts 16:16-18 (Paul,casts out a demon spirit).
Acts 19:11-16 (Paul,wrought special miracles,and healed others by the use of handkerchiefs and aprons,and cast out demons).
Acts 20:9-12 (Paul,raised a young man from the dead).
Acts 28:3-6 (Paul,is unharmed when bitten by a poisonous viper).
Acts 28:8,9 (Paul,heals the father of Plubius and others,by the laying on of his hands).
Note: All of the foregoing,Jewish sign gifts of the believer,of Matt 10:8,and Mark 16:15-18 ended,with the (final) setting aside of Israel's Judahism,at Acts 28:28. Also notice. That in Phil 2:25-30; 2 Tim 4:20,i.e. in Paul's post-Acts epistles. That Paul,(obviously) no longer possessed the foregoing Jewish gift of the healing of the sick. Otherwise,Paul would have undoubtedly healed those sick friends,named in the foregoing verses!

Q. What earlier "dispensational gospel order" was reversed,as the result of Peter's Three Sheet Visions,of Acts 10:9-16?
A. Although abolished (de-jure) at Calvary. The Levitical Law of Separation,of The Jews,from The Gentiles,e.g.Lev 20:24,was not abolished (de-facto),until Peter had received his Three Sheet Visions,of Acts 10:9-16,i,e,as follows:
Acts 10:28 "YE KNOW HOW THAT IT (IS) AN UNLAWFUL THING,FOR A MAN THAT IS A JEW,TO KEEP COMPANY,(OR COME UNTO),ONE OF ANOTHER NATION. BUT GOD HATH SHOWED ME,THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANY MAN COMMON,OR UNCLEAN",--until--Acts 10:9-16.
Note: Christ Jesus confirmed Peter's foregoIng words,in Matt 10:5,6,when He told His newly commissioned (Jewish) Disciples. "GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GEN-
TILES",that is,with His (Strictly Jewish),Kingdom of Heaven Gospel.
UNTIL,Peter received his 3 sheet visions,of Acts 10:9-16. A Jew could not (GO TO) any Gentile--for any reason! But as Peter told Gentile Cornelius above,at Acts 10:28. THAT GOSPEL ORDER HAD BEEN COMPLETELY REVERSED! And a Jew,could thereafter,(GO TO) any Gentile,for any purpose,and especially for that of making them Gentile proselytes to Judahism. In other words. From Mt Sinai,Ex 19:1-8,until Acts 10:28. The gospel order,WAS TO THE JEWS,BUT NO GENTILES! From Acts 10:28,until (the 3rd,and final) setting aside of Israel's Judahism,at Acts 28:28. The gospel order,in the remainder of Acts,WAS TO THE JEWS FIRST,BUT ALSO TO THE GENTILES!
All of the foregoing dispensational facts,present positive proof,OF THE SOLELY
LIMITED (JEWISH SCOPE),OF THE SO-CALLED GREAT COMMISSION OF MATT 28:19,20,AND MARK 16:15-18! And,"the limited (Jewish) scope",of The (Jewish) Pentecost of Acts Ch 2. And,all of the events leading up to (and beyond),the profound dispensational "gospel order change",from Acts 10:28,to Acts 28:28!

Q. What event,provides further proof,of the foregoing scriptural facts?
A. In Acts 11:1-5,the other Jewish Apostles,having heard of Peter's (GOING TO)
Gentile Cornelius,violently rebuked Peter for doing so,as follows:
Acts 11:1-5 "AND THE APOSTLES AND BRETHREN THAT WERE IN JUDAEA,HEARD THAT THE GENTILES HAD ALSO RECEIVED THE WORD OF GOD. AND WHEN PETER WAS COME UP TO JERUSALEM,THEY THAT WERE OF THE CIRCUMCISION CONTENDED WITH HIM,SAYING. "THOU
(WENTEST IN) TO MEN UN-CIRCUMCISED,AND DID EAT WITH THEM". BUT PETER REHEARSED THE (3 sheet vision) MATTER WITH THEM--,and convinced them,that God had indeed,abolished The Levitical Law of Separation,of Jew From Gentile,of Lev 20:24. Positive proof again. That no one had been water baptized,at The Jewish Pentecost of Acts Ch 2,unless they had also become a circumcised convert to Judahism!

Q. To what "religious body",did Peter convert Gentile Cornelius,and his Gentile household,at Acts Ch 10?
A. Judahism. Peter's strictly Jewish,Gospel of The Circumcision did not cease at Acts Ch 10. The only thing that "changed",at Acts Ch 1O. Was that from then onward--a Jew could (GO TO) any Gentile. Notice also,in Acts 10:44-48,that the foregoing Gentile converts,received National Israel's "sign gifts" of the Jewish believers,of Matt 10:8, Mark 16:15-18. Why so? "FOR THE JEWS,REQUIRE A SIGN". The Jews,then present,would not have believed that the Gentiles had also been converted,unless,and until,they had "seen" them also,receive Isreal's sign gifts of the Jewish believer,e.g.Acts 10:44-48.
Notice also. That the foregoing Gentile converts to Judahism,were (commanded)
to be water baptized,Acts 10:48,with Acts 2:38,Matt 28:19,20,Mark 16:15,18.

Q. Why were the (Jewish) converts to Judahism,"FIRST CALLED CHRISTIANS,AT
ANTIOCH",e.g.Acts 11:26?
A. In context,that expression was not said to be either complimentary,or insultingly given. The word alone meant A Christ-One. A Christ-ian. Or simply,A Follower of Christ. Be it a complimentary,or an insultingly salutation.

Q. Why did (the new gospel message),of National Israel's (risen) Messiah,have to be "taken",to all the Jews (in) all the Gentile nations. Matt 28:19,20,and Mark 16:15-18?
A. Acts 11:19. "NOW THEY WHICH WERE SCATTERED ABROAD,UPON THE PERSECUTION THAT AROSE ABOUT STEPHEN. TRAVELED AS FAR AS PHENICE,AND CYPRUS,AND ANTIOCH. PREACHING THE WORD TO NONE,BUT UNTO THE JEWS ONLY".
Note: The foregoing "Jewish missions",to the diaspora,or dispersed Jews,knew nothing concerning (the change of the gospel order),which had occured at Acts 10:28.i.e. That a Jew,could then,(GO TO),and give Israel's gospel message (ALSO TO GENTILES)! Someone,HAD TO GO TO THEM,and notify them of that profound (change in the gospel order),of Acts 10:28! See James 1:1,and 1 Pet 1:1,in this regard.

Q. What other "profound dispensational change",occured at Acts Ch 13?
A. Acts 13:2 "THE HOLY SPIRIT SAID. SEPARATE ME BARNABAS AND PAUL,FOR THE WORK WHEREUNTO I HAVE CALLED THEM". That "NEW WORK",is described as follows:
Note: Beginning with Acts 13:46,Paul,and Barnabas,were (first) called upon,to set aside Israel's Judahism,for National blasphemy. And to (simultaneously),begin the (first) creation of Our Mystery Church,of Eph 3:1-10.
THAT,in effect,was the (remaining) theme of the entire book of Acts,i.e. The (second) setting aside of Israel's Judahism,at Acts 18:6,and the third,and final setting aside of Israel's Judahism,at Acts 28:28. AND,the (simultaneous) creation of our Mystery Church,at each of those "setting asides",of Israel's Judahism.

Q. Where did Paul state. That he,was no longer "under" The Jewish Gospel of The Circumcision,i.e. The Old Testament Covenant,of The Law of Moses?
A. Acts 13:39 "AND BY HIM,ALL THAT BELIEVE,ARE JUSTIFIED FROM ALL THINGS. FROM WHIC? YE COULD NOT BE JUSTIFIED,BY THE LAW OF MOSES". Something that Paul would never have declared,while being either A Jew,or An Israelite.

Q. Where did Paul (first) set aside National Israel's Judahism?
A. Acts 13:45,46. "BUT WHEN THE JEWS SAW THE MULTITUDES,THEY WERE FILLED WITH ENVY,AND SPAKE AGAINST THOSE THINGS,WHICH WERE SPOKEN BY PAUL. CONTRADICTING,AND BLASPHEMING. THEN,PAUL AND BARANBAS WAXED BOLD AND SAID. IT WAS NECESSARY,THAT THE WORD OF GOD SHOULD (FIRST) HAVE BEEN SPOKEN TO YOU. BUT SEEING YE
PUT IT FROM YOU,AND JUDGE YOURSELVES UNWORTHY OF EVERLAST- LASTING LIFE. LO,WE TURN TO THE GENTILES".

Q. If Paul was (then),"TO TURN TO THE GENTILES",why did he immediately return
to ministering again,to National Israel,e.g.Acts 14:1?
A. The (gospel order) throughout Acts,was always "TO THE JEWS FIRST",Acts 3:26.
Althoug??our Mystery Church,was (first) created,(simultaneously) with the foregoing (first) setting aside of Israel's Judahism. Paul's,"TO THE JEWS FIRST",(gospel order),simply moved to the next (Jewish) locale,at Corinth,Acts 18:6, and then on to the (final) Jewish locale at Rome,Acts 28:28. The "LO.WE TURN TO THE GENTILES,. applied solely to those,at each of the foregoing three locales.
Paul,would?always immediately return,to his "TASK",of setting Israel's Judahism aside,at the next locale! TO THE JEWS FIRST",would still apply,until his (final) setting aside of Israel's Judahisn,at Acts 28:28. Luke,wrote (about) Paul's ministry in Acts! But Luke,had no knowledge of Paul's having (simultaneously) created Our Mystery Church at Acts 13:46,18:6,and 28:28. Therefore,Luke merely recorded Paul's ministry of--"TO THE JEWS FIRST". Which,would not have included (any) reference to Paul's creation of Our Mystery Church,in Luke's entire Acts epistle.

Q. Who were "THE ELDERS",mentioned in Acts 14:23?
A. The Greek word for those "ELDERS",was PRESBUTEROS,meaning OVERSEERS . The act of "ordaining them",was the Greek word Chierotonsantes,. The selecting of one,by the stretching out of the hand,or by the pointing of a finger. he Church hurch,"in view",in Acts 14:23,was The Jewish Church,first started by Moses.at Mt Sinai,Acts 7:38. Until the (final) setting aside of Israel's Judahism,at Acts 28:28,Jewish Synagogue worship was still in effect. Still requiring Jewish "ELDERS",or "OVERSEERS",to MAINTAIN CHURCH ORDER,e.g.1 Tim 3:13,as written by Paul,DURING the Acts period.

Q. What very important doctrinal question was "resolved",in Acts 15:1-31?
A. That issue,involved Gentile proselytes to Judahism,i.e.As to whether or not "they were also subject to",The Laws of Moses,Acts 15:1,i.e. As were all saved Israelites! The decision was reached after much dissension. It was,THAT ANY GENTILE,COULD BE- COME ? JEW,i.e.a convert to Isreal's religion of?Judahism. BUT THAT,DID NOT MAKE THOSE GENTILES "ISRAELITED". THAT,COULD ONLY OCCUR BY BEING,BORN SO. An Israelite,is one of a unique ethnic race! A Jew,is one that accepts National Israel's "religious beliefs". The scriptures plainly teach,that no Gentile of any dispensation,was ever "placed under" the well over 660 Commandments,Judgements, and Ordinances,imposed solely upon National Israel,at Mt Sinai. See Rom 2:14, Deut 4:1-8, Deut 5:1-3, Ps 147:19, Rom 6:14. No. The saved Gentile,did not become "An Israelite",when they became "A Jew". ThOse Gentile converts to Judahism,were simply requested,(that when in the presence of saved Israelites). They should voluntarily abstain from things which were offensive to all Israelites.e.g.The eating of pork,drinking of blood,etc,Acts 15:28,29. Those Gentie? converts to Judahism,during the Acts period,were only required to become water baptized,circumcised,and to exhibit the fact,that they had also received National Israel's sign gifts,of the (Jewish) believer,Acts 10:44-48.

Q. Why did Paul circumcise Timothy at Acts 16:1-3?
A. For the foregoing same reason! Timothy's mother was an Israelite,but his father was a Gentile. Timothy,could never "become an Israelite",as was Paul. So to be accepted by the Israelites,Timothy had to accept Israel's Judahism. Then,and only then,could Paul,or any other Israelite,openly associate with,or accept Timothy's conversion to,or ministry to,The Jewish Nation of Israel.

Q. Why did The Holy Spirit forbid Pau?,to take the gospel "back to? Asia,Acts 16:16.i.e.that Paul had previously taken to all Asians,as in the following verse.
A. Acts 19:10 "AND THIS CONTINUED,BY THE SPACE OF TWO YEARS,SO THAT ALL THEY WHICH DWELT IN ASIA,HEARD THE WORD OF GOD,BOTH JEWS AND GENTILES".
Because Asia,having received the gospel,all Asian had rejected it,as follows:
2 Tim 1:15 "THIS THOU KNOWEST. THAT ALL THEY WHICH ARE IN ASIA,BE TURNED AWAY FROM ME". Why so? For the following basic reason:
Acts 19:27 "--THE TEMPLE OF THE GREAT GODDESS DIANA,WHOM ALL ASIA AND THE WORLD WORSHIPPETH".
All Asians,had received the gospel. All Asians,had (collectively) rejected the gospel,and chose to (Nationally) worship the pagan goddess Diana.
Now,consider what occurs,when "the enlightenment" of The word of God,has been
fully received,but then,has been fully rejected, As shown above,and below.
Heb 4:2 "BUT UNTO US WAS THE GOSPEL PREACHED,AS WELL AS UNTO THEM. BUT THE WORD PREACHED DID NOT PROFIT THEM. NOT BEING MIXED WITH FAITH,IN THEM THAT HEARD IT". Heb 6:4-6 "FOR IT IS (IMPOSSIBLE),FOR THOSE WHO WERE (ONCE ENLIGHTENED),AND HAVE
TASTED OF THE HEAVENLY GIFT. AND WERE MADE PARTAKERS (i.e.Gr Metochous,temporarily went along with,"the conviction" of The Holy Spirit,e.g John 16:8-11) OF THE HOLY SPIRIT. AND HAVE TASTED THE GOOD WORD OF GOD. AND THE POWERS OF THE WORLD TO COME. (IF THEY SHALL FALL AWAY)i.e. as in Heb 4:2 above. TO RENEW THEM AGAIN UNTO REPENTANCE. SEEING THEY CRUCIFY TO THEMSELVES THE SON OF GOD AFRESH,AND PUT HIM TO AN OPEN SHAME".
No. "Full enlightenment",does not always lead to one's "full salvation"! Such was the case of those in Asia,in Paul's day. All,had received it. All,had rejected it. Heb 6:4-6 then says. That it is not "DIFFICULT",to take the gospel message "back",to those who received,but rejected it. But,"IT IS (IMPOSSIBLE) TO DO SO"!

Q. Was the (strictly Jewish),7th Day Sabbath,still being observed throughout Acts?
A. Yes. Acts 16:13, Acts 17:1,2 Acts 17:10. Notice also. That all "worshipping",was conducted in The Jewish Synagogues,during the entire (Jewish) Book of Acts.

Q. Are there those,who do indeed possess a Satanic spirit of divination?
A. Yes. Acts 16:16 "AND IT CAME TO PASS,AS WE WENT TO PRAYER. A CERTAIN DAMSEL,POSSESSED WITH A SPIRIT OF DIVINATION,MET US".

Q. Are "the unsaved",ever permitted to preach biblical messages?
A. No. Acts 16:17,18 "THE SAME DAMSEL FOLLOWED US,AND CRIED,SAY- ING."THESE MEN,ARE THE SERVANTS OF THE MOST HIGH GOD,WHICH SHOW UNTO US THE WAY OF SALVATION". AND THIS DID SHE MANY DAYS. BUT PAUL,BEING GRIEVED,TURNED AND SAID UNTO THE SPIRIT,
. I COMMAND THEE IN THE NAME OF CHRIST JESUS,TO COME OUT OF HER. AND HE CAME OUT THE SAME HOUR". Even if the unsaved person(s) speak the truth. They are doing so by the evil spirit within them,for whatever reason(s). All such,are forbidden to do so.

Q. Why should we "imitate",the manner of studying the scriptures,as used by The
Noble Bereans,as follows:
Acts 17:11 "THESE,WERE MORE NOBLE THAN THOSE IN THESSALONICA. IN THAT THEY,RECEIVED THE WORD OF GOD,WITH ALL READINESS OF MIND. AND SEARCHED THE SRIPTURES DAILY,WHETHER THOSE THINGS WERE SO". This was also,in full agreement,with Our Lord's instructions of John 5:39. "(YOU),SEARCH THE SCRIPTURES. FOR IN THEM,YE THINK YE HAVE ETERNAL LIFE. AND THEY ARE THEY,WHICH TESTIFY OF ME". We,are to
"SEARCH THE SCRIPTURES DAILY",(for ourselves). And not have (anyone else),to
search them (for) us. The foregoing Bereans,did not even "trust" the Apostle Paul to search the scriptures (for) them. But even,"checked Paul out",daily.

Q. What one word,should not have been added,to the following scripture?
Acts 17:26 "AND HATH MADE OF ONE (BLOOD),ALL NATIONS OF MEN,FOR TO DWELL ON THE FACE OF THE EARTH".
A. The word "BLOOD",was wrongfully added,to the foregoing verse,in the K.J.V. and also,in other versions.
Note: The Greek word for "OF ONE",in the foregoing verse is HEIS.which means,
"OF ONE CERTAIN PERSON". This,could only be referring to Adam,as the progenitor
of all subsequent mankind. That,being scripturally so. Then the addition,of the word "BLOOD",would be (genetically correct),in that all of us,having one common progenitor, (Adam),we would all be (genetically),"OF ONE BLOOD". Regardless of mankind's three different,"skin pigmentations"!

Q. Does the following verse mean,that we are all God's children,at birth?
Acts 17:28 "FOR IN HIM WE LIVE,AND MOVE,AND HAVE OUR BEING. AS CERTAIN OF YOUR POETS HAVE ALSO SAID,"FOR WE ARE ALSO HIS OFFSPRING". FORASMUCH THEN,AS WE ARE THE OFFSPRING OF GOD--". Note,that it was "the poets" that said this,not God. A. No. The scriptures plainly state,in Rom 8:9. "THE CHILDREN OF THE FLESH,i.e.that is all "procreated" human beings. THESE,(ARE NOT) THE CHILDREN OF GOD".
John 3:1-8,and John 1:11-13 also state. That one does not "BECOME A SON OF
GOD",by any act of "human procreation",but solely by an act of,"Divine Regeneration".
The Greek word for "OFFSPRING",in the foregoing verse,is "GENOS",and simply
refers to The Divine Ownership of God,of all of His created,and their procreated
human beings.

Q. Where does the (second) setting aside of Israel's Judahism occur?
A. Acts 18:6. "AND WHEN THEY OPPOSED THEMSELVES,AND BLASPHEMED. HE SHOOK HIS RAIMENT AND SAID UNTO THEM. YOUR BLOOD BE UPON YOUR OWN HEADS. I AM CLEAN.FROM HENCEFORTH,I WILL GO UNTO THE GENTILES".
Note: Once again,Paul is setting aside those Jews,at the Corinthian locale. But even though our Mystery Church was created (simultaneously),with that 2nd setting aside. And even though Paul stated he would,"HENCEFORTH,GO TO THE GENTILES". Paul,immediately returned (to the Acts gospel order of) "TO THE JEWS FIRST". He
then proceeded to go on to Rome,for his (third,and final) setting aside of National Israel's diaspora rulers,and their unique gospel of Judahism,e.g.(vs 8,15).

Q. Why did Paul "shave his head,and take a Jewish vow",at Acts 18:18?
A. Israel's Old Testament,was not (finally) set aside until Acts 28:28,at Rome. So Paul's unique,two-fold ministry,of 1 Cor 9:19-23,was still very much in effect. When going to The Jews,Paul could,and did,still "act like a Jew,under the law of Moses",which,Paul was no longer under,Acts 13:39,but,Paul could still observe.

Q. Why were the (Jewish) converts of John The Baptist,required to become "re-baptized,at Acts 19:1-7?
A. At Matt 16:20,Christ Jesus had (temporarily halted) His strictly Jewish Gospel of The Kingdom of Heaven,of Matt 3:1,2. Together,with it's inseparable Jewish sign gifts of the (Jewish) believer,of Matt 10:8, Mark 16:15-18. The (Jewish) sign of water baptism,was also "temporarily halted",at that point in time and place of Matt 16:20! Now note,the following dispensational fact. Upon His resurrection,Christ Jesus simply "re-started" His (strictly Jewish) Kingdom Gospel,when He "re-commissioned" those same (Jewish) Apostles,at Matt 28:19,20, Mark 16:15-18! Christ's earthly ministry ceased at that time,and was to be "re-placed",by that of The Holy Spirit Comforter's ministry,at Acts 2:1-4.
But in order "to receive the "re-started" Jewish sign gifts,of the (Jewish) be-
liever. THOSE SAVED JEWS,WHO HAD (NOT YET) RECEIVED THE BAPTISM OF THE HOLY SPIRIT",NEEDED TO BE "RE-BAPTIZED" BY HIM,IN ORDER TO (ALSO) RECEIVE THE JEWISH SIGN GiFTS (BY) THE HOLY SPIRIT! See Acts 19:6 in context,to confirm this. But note,that Acts 19:1-6,was the last (Acts) record,of Israelites being "water baptized".

Q. What is meant by the word "SINCE",in the following verse?
Acts 19:2 "HE SAID UNTO THEM."HAVE YE RECEIVED THE HOLY SPIRIT (SINCE) YE BELIEVED? Does the word "SINCE",support the Pentecostal teaching,of a so called (second wor? work of Grace),i.e.the receiving of a (second) "Baptism of The
Holy Spirit,SOMETIME FOLLOWING) one's initial salvation experience?
A. No. The Greek word for "SINCE YOU BELIEVED",is PISTENSANTOS.i.e."WHEN YOU BELIEVED". Quite a difference between the words "SINCE",and "WHEN".
Those (already saved) disciples of John (much like the Apostles,at Acts Ch 2),did not need "to be re-saved",but only "to recognize and accept",the unique ministry of The Holy Spirit Comforter,3rd Person Holy Trinity. And then,to be empowered with His unique "sign gifts baptism" of Acts 1:5,8, Acts 2:1-4. Empowered,and salvation are thus,two entirely different gifts of that,Holy Spirit.

Q. Is the Greek word ECCLESIA,(i.e.our coined English word for CHURCH),used in
Acts 19:32,39,41,to describe an (unsaved) assembly of Ephesian townspeople?
A. Yes. When one sees the English coined word "CHURCH" mentioned in Holy Writ.
It's meaning may only be derived,from it's in context usage. The Hebrew word KAHAL,
and the Greek word ECCLESIA simply means.(ANY) ASSEMBLY OF CALLED OUT ONES. They may be a spiritual,or an un-spiritual Assembly of Called Out Ones!

Q.Does the following verse teach "Christian Sunday Worship",as ?having replaced?
Jewish Sabbath Worship. And thus teach "Sunday" observance,of The Lord's Supper?
Acts 20:7? "AND UPON THE FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK,WHEN THE DISCIPLE CAME TOGETHER TO BREAK BREAD--".
A. No. As in "THE BREAKING OF BREAD",at Acts 2:42-47, Matt 14:19, Luke 24:30,
Acts 27:13-35. That verse,(in context),refers only to the sharing of a common daily meal! Notice carefully,in Acts 20:11. That"THE BREAKING OF BREAD" continued to take place on the following morning. Nowhere in Holy Writ was the Jewish Sabbath ever "replaced",by a so called Christian Sunday! Vatican Rome,was the originator,of this unscriptural practice.

Q. Could Paul,"still raise the dead",at the very end of Acts?
A. Yes. Acts 20:9-12. Paul,"raised from the dead",the young man who had fallen from an upper level window. Such Jewish sign gifts fully ceased,at Acts 28:28.

Q. Did Paul "still observe" the annual "Jewish Feast of The Pentecost",at the very end of Acts?
A. Yes. Acts 20:16, 1 Cor 16:8. The latter,was also written DURING the Acts period.

Q. Whose blood,did Christ Jesus shed at Calvary?
A. God's blood. Acts 20:28 "THE CHURCH OF GOD,WHICH HE HATH PURCH- ASED WITH HIS OWN BLOOD",i.e.Christ's Own Blood,1 John 1:7; 1 Pet 1:18,19.

Q. Did The (Jewish) Church of Acts pay Paul a so called preacher's salary?
A. No. Paul (totally) supported his own ministry,Acts 20:33,34 "I HAVE COVETED
NO MAN'S SILVER,OR GOLD,OR APPAREL. YEA,YE YOURSELVES KNOW, THAT THESE HANDS HAVE MINISTERED UNTO MY NECESSITIES,AND TO THEM THAT WERE WITH ME". Paul,and others with him,were tentmakers by trade,Acts 18:1-3.

Q. Was Joel's Old Testament prophecy,of Joel 2:28,and Acts 2:15-18,"fulfilled"?
A. Yes. At Acts 2:19."AND THE SAME MAN HAD FOUR DAUGHTERS,WHICH DID PROPHECY".

Q. Did James,and other Jewish elders "choose to remain under",The Dispensation
of The Old Testament Law of Moses?i.e. Rather than to accept Paul's offer of 1 Cor 12:31 of--"YET SHOW I UNTO YOU,A MORE EXCELLENT WAY"?
A. Yes. Acts 21:18-21 "AND THE DAY FOLLOWING,PAUL WENT IN WITH US UNTO JAMES. AND ALL THE ELDERS WERE PRESENT. AND WHEN HE HAD SALUTED THEM,HE DECLARED PARTICULARLY WHAT THINGS GOD HAD WROUGHT AMONG THE GENTILES,BY HIS MINISTRY. AND WHEN THEY HEARD IT,i.e.The Gospel of The Un-circumcision,of Gal 2:6-9 and Gal 1:1-12. THEY GLORIFIED THE LORD,AND SAID UNTO HIM. THOU SEEST BROTHER,HOW MANY THOUSANDS OF JEWS THERE ARE WHICH BELIEVE. (AND THEY ARE ALL ZEALOUSOF THE LAW,i.e. "of remaining under",The Gospel of The ircumcision. AND THEY ARE INFORMED OF THEE,THAT THOU TEACHEST ALL THE JEWS WHICH ARE AMONG THE GENTILES,TO FORSAKE MOSES,SAYING. THAT THEY OUGHT NOT TO CIRCUMCISE THEIR CHILDREN,NEITHER WALK AFTER THE CUSTOM". As Paul proclaimed,e.g.Acts 13:39, Gal Chapters 5 & 6.

Q. Why did some of those same Jews become angry at Paul,when he was recounting
to them,his conversion of Acts Ch 9?
A. Paul said,in Acts 22:31. "AND HE SAID UNTO ME. DEPART,FOR I WILL SEND
THEE FAR HENCE--UNTO THE GENTILES". It was those last words that angered them.
Note: Those Jews,had obviously not heard. Or having heard,had not accepted. The
dispensational change in the gospel order,which had occured at Acts Ch 10! i.e. When Peter received his three sheet visions,proclaiming that The Levitical Law of Separation of Lev 20:24,had been abolished! And that a Jew "thereafter",could (GO TO) any Gentile! That is why they became angry,as did those of Acts 11:1-5,BEFORE,Peter recounted to them,"the gospel order change",of Acts 10:28.

Q. Did Paul claim "to still be a Jew,under the law of Moses",at Acts 24:14?
A. Yes. "--SO WORSHIP I THE GOD OF MY FATHERS. BELIEVING ALL THINGS,WHICH ARE WRITTEN IN THE LAW AND THE PROPHETS". Paul,once again,resorting to his unique two-fold ministry of 1 Cor 9:19-23,which said. That when Paul,went to the Jews,he could "BECOME (AS ? JEW). Whic? he no longer (was),Phi? 3:4-9.

Q. ?Is?National Israe? ever "to share" any portion of The Holy Land,with ANY non-Jew? e.g.The so-called P.L.O. etc?
A. No. Acts 13:19 "AND WHEN HE DESTROYED SEVEN NATIONS,IN THE LAND OF CAANAN, HE DIVIDED THEIR LAND TO THEM BY LOT". See also The Books of Joshua & Judges.

Q. What was Paul's "religious belief" before being converted to Judahism,at Acts Ch 9?,
A. Acts 26:5, Acts 22:3. "THAT AFTER THE MOST STRAITEST SECT OF OUR RELIGION, I LIVED,A PHARISEE". Paul,"gave up" any and all such "religion",at Phil 3:4-9.

Q. What was the last Jewish sign gift of healing,performed by Paul?
A. The healing of Plubius' father,at Acts 28:7-9.

Q. Did Festus,accuse Paul of being insane,because of Paul's great Godly knowledge?
A. Yes. Acts 26:24 "AND AS HE THUS SPAKE FOR HIMSELF. FESTUS SAID WITH A LOUD VOICE."PAUL,THOU ART BESIDE THYSELF. MUCH LEARNING DOTH MAKE THEE MAD".
Note: The literal Gr translation of Festus' words were; "THOU ART RAVING PAUL.
THY GREAT LEARNING,IS TURNING THEE INTO RAVING MADNESS". Those same Jews,also called John The Baptist "a devil",Matt 11:18,and accused Christ Jesus Him Himself,"OF CASTING OUT DEVILS,BY BEELZEBUB,THE PRINCE OF DEVILS,Matt 12:24.

Q. Where was the (third),and (final),setting aside of Israel's Judahism?
A. At Rome,Acts 28:25-28."--BE IT KNOWN THEREFORE UNTO YOU. THAT THE SALVATION OF GOD IS SENT TO THE GENTILES. AND THAT (THEY) WILL HEAR IT".
Note: (That time),Paul did indeed "TURN TO THE GENTILES". With Paul's foregoing (third and final) setting aside of National Israel,i.e. National Israel's Judahism. The Oracles of God were taken from National Israel and given to Our foregoing Church of The Mystery,of Eph 3:1-10. National Israel,no longer had either the priority of receiving,or the priority of proclaiming The Gospel. As so prophesied,in Isa 9:13-16. "FOR THE PEOPLE TURNETH NOT UNTO HIM THAT SMITETH THEM. NEITHER DO THEY SEEK THE LORD OF HOSTS. THEREFORE,THE LORD WILL CUT OFF FROM ISRAEL HEAD AND TAIL,BRANCH AND RUSH,IN ONE DAY! THE ANCIENT,AND HON-
OURABLE,HE IS THE HEAD. AND THE PROPHET THAT TEACHETH LIES,HE IS THE TAIL. FOR THE LEADERS OF THIS PEOPLE,CAUSE THEM TO ERR. AND THEY THAT ARE LED OF THEM,ARE DESTROYED".
Rom 11:25 "FOR I WOULD NOT BRETHREN,THAT YE SHOULD BE IGNORANT OF THIS MYSTERY. LEST YE SHOULD BE WISE IN YOUR OWN CONCEITS. (THAT BLINDNESS IN PART HATH HAPPENED TO ISRAEL),UNTIL THE FULNESS OF THE GENTILES BE COME IN".
At the foregoing (third,and final) setting aside of Israel's Judahism,the following dispen- sational changes occured:
(1). Paul's unique two-fold ministry,of 1 Cor 9:19-23,was forever abolished!
(2). His (gospel order) was changed from,"TO THE JEWS FIRST" to,"TO THE GENTILES FIRST"!
(3). The Old Testament Covenant of Law,was "replaced",by Our Mystery Church,and
Our Gospel of The Grace of Christ,e.g.Gal 1:6-9; Eph 2:8,9; Titus 3:5.
(4)."Apostolic succession",of (the twelve Jewish Apostles),totally ended.
(5). Paul's unique offer,of "choosing" which dispensation "to live under" in Acts was with- drawn from those Jews,and Gentile proselytes to Judahism,whose lives "overlapped",the dispensational change,occuring at Acts 13:46, 18:6, 28:28. For any Jew,to become saved,"following" Acts 28|:28. They must "give up" their racial and ethnic,and social,and gender identities,Gal 3:28. As must we all. And become "A MEMBER,OF CHRIST'S ONE BODY",of Eph 1:22,23, Eph 4:4-6. As Paul also did,at Phil 3:4-9. See also Col 3:11, Gal 3:28.
(6). All Jewish sign gifts of the Jewish believer,of Matt 10:8, Mark 16:15-18,were totally abolished. For (now)--"WE,WALK BY FAITH,NOT BY SIGHT",2 Cor 5:7.
(7). National Israel's ritual sign of water baptism,was replaced by our "ONE BAPTISM,
of Eph 4:5,i.e. The dry,waterless,Holy Spirit Baptism of Death. Not (LIKE) Christ Jesus,in Jordan,but (WITH) Christ Jesus,at Calvary. 1 Cor 12:13 with Rom 6:3-10,and Luke 12:50,where Christ Jesus "foretold" the latter.
(8). All earthly temple (i.e.building worship) ended! Together,with (all) of it's former (Jewish) Ordinances of Divine Service,and it's (multiple) human Levitical Priesthood,that administered them! See Heb Ch 9. Christ Jesus,is (now),our "ONE AND ONLY ONE HEAVENLY MEDIATOR,BETWEEN GOD AND MAN". So states 1 Tim 2:5.
And (we) now worship---solely "IN THE HEAVENLIES".

Wellington

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