How to Interpret the Bible

 

The “literal” meaning of a word is the: basic, normal, usual, or customary, and socially-acknowledged designation of that word (e.g., “cat” – a house pet, in the minds of most in the USA).

The “cultural” meaning of a word is the anthropological/customary sense of a word in reference to the total ways, methods, manners, tools, and institutions with which a given people, tribe, or nation carry on their existence. It also includes the history of these peoples (e.g., “cat” – to an Amazonian Indian, it’s a big, wild mammal; to Louis Armstrong, it’s a devotee or player of hot jazz; to a construction worker, it’s a big bulldozer; to the average American household, it’s a house pet).

If the literal meaning of terms is their socially designated meaning, then we must of necessity know the culture in which these terms were first used. What a term or word or expression literally means can be determined only from an inspection of the culture of the people who used it.

The “critical” interpretation of Scripture means that any interpretation of Scripture must have adequate justification. The grounds for the interpretation must be made explicit, by appealing to, history, lexicons (word-studies), grammar (Hebrew or Greek grammar), theology, culture, or geography. If our interpretations are justifiably determined by the various criteria here suggested, then they are rooted in the sort of fact that scholars can investigate weighing the evidence.

 

Some principles of interpretation which act as a general guide for all interpretation are:

 

1.      The principle of “the priority of the original languages.” The purpose of this principle is neither to confine the study of the Bible to the students of Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek nor to discourage the average Christian from reading his/her Bible. The average Christian with proper books and hard work can learn much of the genuine sense of the Scriptures. As long as the inter­preter does not work with original languages, he has no method of judging the accuracy of his translation.

 

[E.g., in Heb. 7:3 it says that Melchizedek was without “descent” (children) – in the King James Version. The Greek word “agenealogetos” means without “genealogy” and hence Melchizedek could have had children, but not kept the genealogical list.]

 

[E.g., in Eph. 5:18, it commands to “be filled with the Spirit”. The Greek word for “filled” is “pleroo”, meaning “influenced fully/completely” and includes the idea of being led and enabled by God’s Holy Spirit. – Dr. L. Richards’ Expository Dictionary of Bible Words, p. 278.]

 

2.      The principle of “the accommodation of revelation.” The Bible is the truth of God accommodated to the human mind for its proper assimilation. The Bible was written in three human languages and in the terms of the human environment (physical & social). The truth of God made contact with the human mind, else it would stand meaningless. To be a meaningful and assimilable revelation, the revelation had to come in human languages, in human thought forms, and referring to objects of human experience. Revelation of necessity must have an anthropomorphic (attributing human characteristics to non-human objects) character (such as the parabolic teachings of Christ). Our understanding of the spiritual world is analogical.

 

[E.g., God’s Almightiness is spoken of in terms of “Thy right hand and arm” – Psa. 44:3 – because among men the right arm/hand is the symbol of strength or power.]

 

3.      The principle of “progressive revelation.” The Bible sets forth a movement of God, with the initiative coming from God and not man, in which God brings man up through the theological infancy of the Old Testament to the maturity of the New Testament. This does not mean that there are no advanced elements in the Old Testament, nor any simple matters in the New, but that this is the general pattern of revelation. The interpreter will expect, generally, the full revela­tion in the New Testament.

 

[E.g., the revelations in the O.T. came sporadically and partially – Heb. 1:1, 2 – but now they’ve come finally through Christ. The law of Mt. Sinai – Ex. 20 – taught a necessary but basic morality; but the Sermon on the Mount explains and develops this morality to its wider and fuller meaning – Matt. 5. For example, in Ex. 20:13 the command is to not murder, personal physical killing, but in 1 Jn. 3:15 hate is considered murder. In Ex. 20:14 the command is to not commit physical adultery, but in Col. 3:5; Eph. 5:3; Matt. 5:28 mental adultery is condemned.]

 

4.      The principle of “historical propriety.” By this, we mean that an interpreter must have some sense as to what men may or may not have believed in any given century of biblical revelation (see comment above on “cultural meaning”).

 

[E.g., it is doubtful whether Eve fully comprehended the future meaning of the words of Genesis 3:15. Therefore, her comment in Gen. 4:1 would not contain a reference to the God-man (i.e., Jesus), as it presumes far more theological content in the mind of Eve than the record as it stands will allow. The Hebrew word “eth” means “with” or “with the help of” or “from” (in 4:1), but not “even”. So it means, “I have gotten a manchild with the help of the Lord” rather than, “I have gotten a man, the Lord.”]

 

5.      The principle of “ignorance.” Speech occurs within a context of conversation and a cultural context. The meaning of a given sentence is dependent upon the context of conversation and the context of culture. When we have biblical sentences without the full conversational context out of which they arose and where the cultural context is imperfectly known, we can certainly expect some of them to be very puzzling. The obscurity of ancient documents is far more frequently oc­casioned by our ignorance of a lot of things (back then so familiarly known, that a passing al­lusion only was needed to present a vivid picture), than any difficulties connected with the language itself.

 

[E.g., 1 Cor. 15:29; 1 Pet. 3:19; Mal. 2:15 have over 30 different interpretations. When there is not sufficient interpretative material on hand, the prudent interpreter will admit his ignorance and say, “I don’t know.”). A possible interpretation for 1 Cor. 15:29 is that possibly some believers had not been baptized yet and were motivated to boldness and got baptized because they saw or heard about other believers being martyred, as in inferred in 15:30-32; 7:26, 29; 2 Cor. 1:8, 9; and 4:10. A possible interpretation for 1 Pet. 3:19 is the Spirit of Christ (1:11) preached through Noah (2 Pet. 2:5) to the unbelievers/disobedient (1 Pet. 3:20), who after they perished/died in the flood are in Hades/prison awaiting judgment (Rev. 20:11-14).]

 

[Another example is how the word “dog” is used. It can be: a (house) pet; a worthless person or a person (e.g., a lazy dog); any of a number of mechanical devices for holding, gripping, or fastening that consist of a spike, rod, or bar, or an andiron (i.e., holds logs in a fireplace); pretended stylishness or dignity (e.g., he/she liked to put on the dog); either of the constellations Canis Major or Minor; something inferior of its kind (e.g., that’s dog roofing); ruin (e.g., that has gone to the dogs); an investment not worth its price (e.g., that’s dog stock); an unattractive woman (e.g., she’s a dog); a theatrical or musical flop (e.g., that film or group was a dog); a friend (e.g., What’s up, dog?). Webster’s New Collegiate Dictionary, p. 334.]

 

6.      The principle of “differentiating interpretation from application.” A passage of Scripture has one meaning, but the moral principles of the passage may be capable of many applications. Applications are not interpretations and must not receive that status.

 

[E.g., the phrase “unequally yoked”/“bound together” in 2 Cor. 6:14 is a metaphor emphasizing the incongruity of believers be­ing paired, in a binding way, with unbelievers. The application of this interpretation could in­clude: marriage, business partnerships, lodges (e.g., masons), fraternities/sororities, etc.]

 

7.      The “checking” principle. The purpose of this principle is to check for our own blind spots and peculiarities, to save us from pitfalls of previous erring exegesis, to improve our work with the wisdom of the past and fill in our imperfect knowledge. Check your results with secular studies if the passage borders on matters of science or history, etc.

 

[E.g., in 1 Cor. 14:21, 22 it says that “tongues are for a sign … to unbelievers…” Matching this with Isa. 28:11-13, we see that speaking in tongues/foreign languages was to be a sign of impending judgment upon the unbelieving Jews. This judgment came upon the Old Testament Jews of Isaiah’s time with the in­vasion of the Assyrian army – 2 Kings 17:5-12 (in Israel); 18:13 (in Judah); 20:16-18; 21:10-15; with the invasion of the Babylonian army – 24:10-14; 25:8-11 (in Judah) – and upon the New Testament Jews in A.D. 70 with the invasion of the Roman army – Unger’s Bible Dictionary, p. 578.]

 

8.      The principle of “induction.” In our interpretation of Scripture, we must discover the mean­ing of a passage, not attribute one to it. “Exegesis” is bringing the meaning of a text to the surface. Induction (the result of reasoning from the facts present) in exegesis means that the Scripture is allowed to speak for itself.

 

[E.g., in John 14:6 Jesus says, “I am the way…” The word “am” is the first person, singular, present indicative of “be” expressing identity with or equivalency to an object. It is not saying Jesus’ example or life is “the way” but He Himself.]

 

9.      The principle of “preference for the clearest interpretation.” Frequently, the interpreter is confronted with two or more equally probable interpretations as far as grammatical rules permit. One is a strain on our tendency to believe it too readily, the other is not. One meaning is rather obvious, the other obscure. The rule is: choose the clear one over the obscure one.

 

[E.g., in 1 Pet. 2:24 it says, “…for by His wounds you were healed.” There is no room here for the interpretation that the blood of Jesus heals our physical illnesses. The cross was purely a judicial matter. The matter of bodily illness is not mentioned in the context, but “bore our sins”, “died to sin”, and “lived to righteousness” are in the context. The Greek word here is not confined in its meaning to physical healing. In Heb. 12:13; Matt. 13:15 “heal” has other meanings. And the context also decides the meaning to be that of the salvation of the soul, as in Isa. 53:5.). In Heb. 12:13, which is a medical metaphor, the believer needs to prepare himself so as to profit from God’s discipline when it comes (vss. 5-11). The spiritually weak must take special care to avoid dangerous obstacles/temptations to sin, so as to not be put out of joint, hurt spiritually, but rather walk/live on a straight path of conduct, so as to be spiritually healed/healthy/strong. In Matt. 13:15, “heal them”, means spiritually save them (Jn. 12:40).]

 

Verbal inspiration does not pledge the interpreter to a crude literalism because of the anthropomorphisms about God, the poetic imagery, and the figures of speech found so plentifully in the Bible. Obscure passages must give right of way to clear passages.

 

[E.g., in John 15:1 Jesus says, “I am the vine…” This is obviously a figure of speech, a metaphor, showing Jesus to be the source of life to the branches (believers). Jesus doesn’t have literal leaves on Him. Another figure of speech is found in Psa. 17:8 and 36:7 where God is said to have wings, symbolizing “protection”.]

 

10.  The principle of the “unity (one-meaningness) of the sense of Scripture.”  The interpretation of Scripture is possible only if it is determinate/fixed, and it is determinate only if the meaning of the Scrip­ture is one. When more than one sense is imposed on Scripture, the meaning of the Word of God is obscured. The unity of the sense of Scripture does not intend to deny that there is figurative language in the Bible. The literal meaning in such cases is the proper meaning as determined by the specific form or type of the figure of speech. Nor does this principle deny typology nor multiple fulfillment in predicted prophecy. There is a connection between type and anti-type (the person or thing represented or foreshadowed by an earlier type or symbol – such as “oil” in the Old Testament often represented the Holy Spirit), prediction and fulfillment, so that the anti-type and the fulfillment are expansions of the original meaning of the text, not new additional meanings.

 

[E.g., Elijah is a type of John the Baptist – Mal. 4:5, 6; Matt. 11:7, 14; 17:10-12; Lk. 1:13, 17. Old Testament lambs are a type of Christ, Jn. 1:29; Isa. 53:7; Lev. 4:27, 32-35; 5:1-6.]

 

11.  The principle of “the similarity/analogy of faith/doctrine.” Scripture interprets scripture, or scripture is its own interpreter. It is the constant and perpetual harmony of Scripture in the fundamental points of faith and practice deduced from those passages in which they were dis­cussed by the inspired penmen either directly or expressly, and in clear, plain, and intelligible language. The Bible is to be interpreted as one whole, one harmonious system of doctrine.

 

[E.g., Heb. 10:26, 27 seems to say you can lose your salvation, but 10:10 says the opposite. The phrase “have been sanctified” (Gk. “hagiasmenoi”) is a perfect (completed action) participle (verb used as an adjective), showing a continuous and permanent state of salvation. In 10:26, 27, “sinning willfully” is a present tense verb emphasizing durative action, not isolated acts of sin. A continuous, permanent apostasy (rejection of Christ’s death-payment for all the believer’s sins as sufficient for salvation in order to return to Judaism and OT laws). The OT had no sacrifice for willful sins, only judgment (Ex. 21:14; Num. 15:30; Deut. 17:12, 13; 18:20, 22). There was only sacrifice for sins of ignorance, omission, and defilement (Lev. 4 and 5). Jesus provides for all sins (Col. 2:13, 14; Acts 13:38, 39). This hypothetical argument was a warning to remain true to Christianity. To object to the value of an argument which “cannot happen” is to misunderstand the difference between God’s perfect knowledge of His program and the means He employs for achieving it. Several examples may be helpful. Jesus “would not walk in Judea because the Jews sought to kill Him” (Jn. 7:1). Yet from the divine standpoint, Christ’s death was set for a certain time, and His hour had not yet come. Therefore, the Jews surely could not have killed Him prematurely. Nevertheless, Jesus avoided Judea at that time, and this was the means whereby God’s plan was effected. On the voyage to Rome, Paul was divinely instructed that all on the ship would survive the storm and shipwreck. Although this was now certain to occur, Paul later told the soldiers, “except these abide in the ship you cannot be saved” (Acts 27:31); and this was the means of accomplishing God’s purpose (even though the purpose was certain). Although it was not possible that Herod the Great could kill the infant Jesus and thus thwart God’s purposes planned for Calvary, Joseph was nevertheless warned to take Jesus and Mary to Egypt to escape the slaughter of the children at Bethlehem. His heeding of the warning was the means God employed to bring about the results which in God’s plan were already certain of fulfillment. Hence it is proper to see in warnings such as this one in Hebrews the means whereby God achieves the goal of keeping true believers faithful to the end (3:14).]

 

[Another example is found in 2 Sam. 24:1, where it says that God incited David to conduct the census of the people, but in 1 Chron. 21:1, it states that Satan incited David. Actually, both did, God indirectly and Satan directly. This reason has to what happened because the harmony of Scripture. James 1:13 says that God doesn’t (directly) tempt anyone to sin, and we can see in other passages where God uses Satan and/or demons to do so (therefore, God indirectly and Satan directly). See examples of this in 1 Ki. 22:19-23; Judges 9:23, 24, 56, 57; 1 Sam. 16:14; 18:10; 19:9; 26:19; Job 1:11, 12 with 2:3-7 and 19:21; 1 Pet. 4:9 with 5:8; Acts 2:22, 23 with 4:27, 28 and Jn. 13:2, 27.]

 

Specific Principles of Interpretation:

 

1.      The principle of “the study of words.” Words are the units of thought, and the bricks of conceptual construction. Any study of Scripture, therefore, must commence with a study of words, and words may be studied different ways.

 

  1. Words may be studied “etymologically.” That is, tracing a word back as far as possible, generally by the methods of comparative linguists; study the origin and development of a word. This is best done with a lexicon (a dictionary, especially of an ancient language).

 

[E.g., the English word “baptize” comes from the Greek word “baptizō” which is related to “baptō.” It meant to dip under and was used in such instances as the dipping of cloth in dye, the sinking of a ship, and being over head and ears in debt. The word here means “completely submerged”. Our present day English equivalent would be “sunk”. And so, the word “baptism” in the Bible has come to mean “the introduction or placing of a person or thing into a new environment or into union with something else so as to alter its condition or its relationship to its previous environment or condition. According to Rom. 6:3, 4, the believing sinner is baptized into vital union with Christ. By this action, his condition is changed from that of a lost sinner with a totally depraved nature to that of a saint with a divine nature as well.]

 

[E.g., the word “church” in Greek is “ekklesia”. It comes from the Greek words “ek” meaning “out from” and “kaleo” meaning “to call”. Therefore, the word “church” means “to call out from”, a called out body of people, called out of the world of unsaved humanity to become the people of God; an assembly.]

 

[E.g., The word “cross” is the Greek word “stauros”, meaning “stake or pole”. As practiced by the Romans, crucifixion involved either tying or nailing the convicted person to a crossbeam, which was attached to the “stauros”. The cross might be in the form of a T or a t .Expository Dictionary of Bible Words, p. 204 by Dr. L. Richards (who studied Greek for seven years). The fact that John 20:25 uses the word “nails” (plural) is evidence that there was a crossbeam rather than merely a stake/pole with one nail through both hands together. Dr. M. Unger in Unger’s Bible Dictionary, p. 227, states “that the cross was widely known in pre-Christian times as an emblem has been clearly shown by independent investigators”. Webster’s New Collegiate Dictionary, p. 268, states that it was “a structure consisting of an upright with a transverse beam used especially by the ancient Romans for execution”. According to An Expository Dictionary of Biblical Words, p. 248, “the shape of the two-beamed cross had its origin in ancient Chaldea”. The method of execution (on these beams) was borrowed by the Greeks and Romans from the Phoenicians.”]

 

  1. Words may be studied “comparatively.”  This is best done with concordances in the original languages. This study reveals how many times a word is used, what writers in the Bible used it, and the various meanings of the word evident from its usages.

 

[E.g., a comparative study of the word “soul” (Gk. “psueche”) reveals that it has several meanings. It may mean a person – Acts 2:41; the spiritual and immortal part of our being – Matt. 10:28; the seat of will and purpose – Acts 4:32; the natural life of the body – Lk. 12:22; or several other things.]

 

[Another example is found in 1 Cor. 13:10, “but when the perfect comes, the partial will be done away.”  The words “the perfect” are the Greek words “to teleion”, and are in the neuter gender, meaning “completion”, “entire”, “finalized thing”, and “an end accomplished as the effect of a process” – Dr. W. Perschbacher, The Analytical Greek Lexicon, p. 404; Dr. N. Sellers, Biblical Conclusions Concerning Tongues, p. 16; Dr. V. Budgen, The Charismatics and the Word of God, p. 75; Drs. Vine, Unger, and White, An Expository Dictionary of Biblical Words, p. 847. It refers to the revelatory spiritual gifts of prophecy and (special) knowledge in 13:8, 9. These exact same Greek words “to teleion” are found in Col. 1:28, where they are translated as the word “complete”. So, the word “perfect” in 1 Cor. 13:10, when compared with Col. 1:28, has the meaning of “complete” or “finalized thing”. In 1 Cor. 13, it refers to the completion of God’s revelatory messages, as contained in the Bible.]

 

  1. Words may be studied “historically.”  Sometimes a word has a history or has historical or cultural reference, and such information enriches our understanding of the word. The interpreter tries to discover the meaning of the word to the people at the time and locality in which the document being interpreted was written.

 

[E.g., when it is said that our Lord offered “supplications” (Gk. “hikete”) in Heb. 5:7, the word used is associated with the custom of bringing an olive branch to a dignitary from whom one is requesting a favor to assure him of the sin­cerity of the appeal. Or, in Ezek. 6:11, it says, “Clap your hands…”, which was a symbol of derision/ridicule/scoffingly rejoicing/laugh at contemptuously, as seen in 21:14, 17; 22:13; 25:6; Lam. 2:15; Job 27:23.]

 

[E.g., in Jn. 2:4 and 19:26, Jesus addresses His mother as “woman”. Rather than being a degrading term, the term “woman” (Gk. “gune”) during Jesus’ time and in His culture was a polite, kind expression. – Dr. Walvoord’s The Bible Knowledge Commentary, NT, p. 278. Vine’s An Expository Dictionary of Biblical Words, p. 1239, says “in the vocative case (the case of address), it’s a term not of reproof, but of endearment or respect” (Matt. 15:28).]

 

[E.g., did Jesus descend from Solomon (Matt. 1:6) or from Nathan (Lk. 3:31), both of whom are sons of David? Both! Jesus physically descended from Nathan, who is part of Mary’s genealogical ancestry through her father Heli (Lk. 3:23). But Jesus is legally descended from Solomon, who is part of Joseph’s genealogical ancestry (Matt. 1:16), and Joseph is Jesus’ legal father by marriage to Mary.]

 

[E.g., was Jacob (Matt. 1:16) or Heli (Lk. 3:23) the father of Joseph, Mary’s husband? Jacob is the father of Joseph, as Matt. 1:16 records, while Heli is the father of Mary, Joseph’s wife. Matthew gives the genealogy of Joseph, while Luke gives the genealogy of Mary. Luke follows strict Hebrew tradition in mentioning only males (Commentary on the Whole Bible, p. 996; Matthew Henry’s Commentary, vol. 3, p. 356.). So, Mary is designated by her husband’s name (a metonymy). This is supported by the fact that every name in the Greek text of Luke’s genealogy, except for Joseph’s, is preceded by the definite article e.g., the Heli, the Matthat). Although not obvious in English translations, this would strike anyone reading the Greek, who would realize that it was tracing the line of Joseph’s wife, even though his name was used. Other places in the Bible where metonymies are used are: David is substituted for Rehoboam in 1 Kings 12:16 with 12:12, 17; king/Solomon is substituted for Huram-abi and his skilled men in 2 Chron. 4:17-22 with 4:16 and 2:13, 14; Jesus is substituted for His disciples in Jn. 4:1 with 4:2. That Heli is Mary’s father is also supported by the Jerusalem Talmud, a Jewish source, which recognizes the genealogy to be that of Mary, daughter of Heli, as found in Haghigha 2:4 (A. Fruchtenbaum’s The Vineyard, “The Genealogy of the Messiah”, pp. 10-13), or Haghigha 77:4 (Dr. Hendriksen’s NTC – The Gospel of Luke, pp. 223-225). Or, if the phrase “as was supposed of Joseph” in Lk. 3:23 is taken as a parenthesis, then Jesus is called the son of Heli. The term son, here, then would be used in the sense of grandson or descendant, which son has as a meaning (Dr. Richards’ Expository Dictionary of Bible Words, p. 572; Collier’s Dictionary, p. 951). The omission of the definite article in Greek before Joseph’s name would show that his name is separated from the genealogical chain and accorded a place of its own, as a parenthesis. So, Jesus would be the grandson of Heli, who is Mary’s father (Dr. Hendriksen’s NTC – The Gospel of Luke, pp. 223-226; Dr. Geldenhuys’ The New International Commentary on the NT – The Gospel of Luke, pp. 151-154; Dr. Robertson’s Word Pictures in the NT – Luke, p. 46.]

 

2.      The principle of “grammatical interpretation.” Grammar states the principles which arrange the formation of words into meaningful sentences. The interpreter must have clearly at his finger-tips grammatical concepts as number (singular or plural), gender (masculine, feminine, neuter), case (e.g., nominative, accusative, etc.), mood (e.g., indicative, imperative, etc.), tense (e.g., present, past, etc.), voice (active, passive, or middle), participle (verb functioning as an adjective), infinitive, etc., with special attention given to idioms. Some training or understanding in the science of linguistics can greatly help the interpreter.

 

[E.g., in John 1:1 we read, “In the beginning was the Word”, “Was” is in the imperfect tense. Now, the imperfect tense implies a previous state and its continuance. If Jn. 1:1 were interpreted to bring out the full force of the imperfect, it would be translated, “In the beginning the Word had been existing, and is still existing.” Thus, indicating the eternal existence of Jesus Christ. Also, in 1:1, it uses the phrase “the Word was God”. The word “God”, here, is the Greek word “theos”. In Greek, there is no indefinite article (i.e., “a” or “an”). So, when translating a noun from Greek (that doesn’t have a definite article in front of it) into English, the English noun may or may not have the English indefinite article in front of it (e.g., “a god” or “God”). When the definite article is not in front of the noun, it expresses quality or characteristics. So, in Jn. 1:1, “theos” emphasizes the full Deity (i.e., quality) of Jesus Christ, vss. 14-18 – Dr. R. Summers, Essentials of New Testament Greek, p. 16; Dr. W. Hendriksen, NTC – The Gospel of John, p. 71. The same Greek word, “theos” is used in Jn. 1:6, 12, 18 and is translated as “God” in all three verses. So, when the Jehovah Witness cult translates “theos” as “a god” in 1:1, but as “God” in verses 6, 12, and 18, they are both inconsistent and dishonest.]

 

[Another example is found in Col. 1:22, 23, “…He has now reconciled you in His fleshly body through death, in order to present you before Him holy and blameless and beyond reproach – if indeed you continue in the faith firmly established and steadfast, not moved away…” This passage is not teaching that a believer might be able to lose his salvation “if” he doesn’t continue in the faith. One reason we know this is because many other passages in the N.T. specifically teach a believer cannot.  But another reason is because the grammar in this passage shows that loss of salvation is not what is being discussed.  The English word “if” is the translation of the Greek word “ei”, which here is used with the indicative mood (which expresses action really taking place). In Greek, “if indeed you continue…” is a first class conditional clause that affirms the reality of the condition, and so the word “if” can and does mean “since” here. Therefore, these Colossian believers will be presented blameless before Christ “since” they are continuing in the faith. If the Greek word “ean” (“if”) was used with the subjunctive mood (expressing action which is not really taking place but is objectively possible), or if the Greek word “ei” (“if”) was used with the optative mood (expressing action which is not really taking place but is subjectively possible), then the conditional clause would express a hypothetical condition with the possibility of a future realization. But that’s not the case here – Dr. Ray Summers, Essentials of New Testament Greek, pp. 106-109.]

 

3.      The principle of “contextual interpretation.” Each verse or passage has a very real relation to that which immediately precedes as well as what follows. A thought expressed in a sentence can only be properly deduced when that thought is set in the light of the thoughts which precede it and which follow after it (the chapter, the book, the entire Bible, and the culture).

 

[E.g., in Matt. 16:28, Jesus says, “There are some of those who are standing here who shall not taste death until they see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom.” By following through into the 17th chapter, we find the fulfillment of this in the transfiguration of our Lord, which interpretation is verified by Peter’s subsequent remarks on this event in 2 Peter 1:15-18.]

 

[E.g., in John 3:5, it says, “Unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God”. Some people think “born of water” means “baptism”, while others think it means various other things. The context, however, tells us the correct meaning. The discussion revolves around being “born again”, vss. 3, 7. Nicodemus thought that to be born again meant to be born physically a second time, vs. 4. Jesus, however, meant that the second birth would be a spiritual one, vss. 5, 6, 8. So when Jesus says, “Unless one is born of water”, which is another way of saying “born out of a water-like or fluid-filled sack/womb”, He’s talking about a physical birth. Verse six confirms this when Jesus makes the contrast between a physical and spiritual birth, just as verse five did. So context determines the correct meaning, and baptism is not at all found in the immediate context, while physical birth is.]

 

[E.g., another word that has multiple meanings is the word “all”, and context will determine its meaning in any particular passage. The word “all” doesn’t always mean “everyone or everything on the entire planet Earth inclusively”. The Greek word “pas” and all of its various forms can also mean and be translated as “all kinds/sorts of”, as it does in 1 Tim. 6:10 in the NASB and NIV translations of the Bible. The KJV simply translates “pas” as “all”, but it cannot mean “every single act of evil inclusively” because there are other motives/reasons people commit other than because of love for money. Many, if not most, evils are committed because they are a product of our sinful natures/flesh/hearts, as seen in Gal. 5:19-21; Matt. 15:18, 19; Mk. 7:21-23. Or, the word “all” can have the meaning of “all kinds/sorts of” without being translated by those words, but only by the word “all”, yet having the meaning of “all kinds of”. For example, in 1 Tim. 2:1, it says that prayer should be made on behalf of “all” men, and then goes on in vs. 2 to illustrate who those “all men” are, “kings and all who are in authority”. So the praying for “all” men means praying for “all kinds of people, such as various governing authorities. There’s no way we could pray for every single individual on planet Earth because the population numbers in the billions, and we don’t know their names either. In Acts 13:10, it states that Elymas the magician was full of “all” deceit, meaning “all kinds of” deceit. It would be impossible for him to commit every expression of deceit inclusively that exists in the world. Or, it’s a hyperbole, meaning “a lot of” deceit in his life. The Greek word “pas” can also mean “all of a certain kind/type/category”, as it does in 2 Pet. 3:19, where “all” refers to “all believers/beloved”, as the context shows in 3:1, 8; 1:1; 1 Pet. 1:1, 2. The word “all” in John 12:32 means “all believers”, as Jesus won’t draw non-believers to Himself for salvation in heaven. In Acts 2:17, “all” refers to “all God’s servants”, vs. 18. In 1 Tim. 2:6, “all” means “all believers”, as Jesus gave Himself for all His sheep/church/chosen/saints, Jn. 10:11, 15, 26; Eph. 5:25; Titus 2:14 with 1:1; and Rom. 8:32 with 1:7. In Rom. 5:18, “justification of life to all men” refers to “all believers”, as every person in the world inclusively is not justified; otherwise, everyone would go to heaven, Rom. 8:30. In Rom. 15:14, “all” refers to “all the truths just expounded by Paul in his letter”, so that they are “able to admonish one another”. It couldn’t mean “all knowledge that exists inclusively” because these Christians in Rome weren’t God, being all-knowing about everything inclusively. In Jude 1:5, “all” refers to the Gospel or “all things related to the faith”, vs. 3, for the same reason stated above. In 1 Cor. 10:33, it says that Paul “pleases all men in all things”. First, it’s an impossibility to please every single individual inclusively in all things inclusively. Second, Paul even states in Gal. 1:10 that he’s not trying to please men when it comes to preaching the truth of the gospel, 1:8, 9. Third, the context of 1 Cor. 10:32 shows that the “all men” refers to Jews, Greeks, and Christians, three kinds/categories of men. So, the “all men” means “all kinds/categories of people”, and the “all things” means “all kinds of things” that are legitimate, not illegitimate or sinful things, so that they may be saved.]

 

[E.g., another word that has multiple meanings is the word “world”. It doesn’t always mean “everyone or every place on planet Earth inclusively”. Rather, context determines its meaning. For example, in Jn. 12:19, the word “world” means “a lot of people”. It’s used as a hyperbole. In Acts 17:6, “world” means “a lot of people in several parts of the Roman empire”, as Paul was only half way through his 2nd missionary journey, which only covered a small part of the Roman empire. In Acts 24:5, “world” means “a small part of the Roman empire”, as he wasn’t even known in Rome yet, see 28:17, 20, 21. In Col. 1:6, the phrase “all the world” means “various part of the Roman empire”. In Jn. 21:25, the word “world” means “a large volume of books”. In Jn. 18:20, “world” means “a lot of people in the area around Palestine/Israel”. In 1st John 2:2, “the whole world” means “the whole world of or all believers”, as Jesus is the propitiation/satisfaction to God the Father for the sins of all believers/His sheep/His church/His chosen/His saints, as seen in Jn. 10:11, 15, 26; Eph. 5:25; Titus 2:14 with 1:1; and Rom. 8:32 with 1:7. Jesus didn’t die for every single person on planet Earth, but for all believers only. He died for many, not everyone on planet Earth, Matt. 20:28; 26:28; Mk. 14:24; 10:45.]

 

[E.g., the phrase “the many” has one meaning, but different applications. The meaning being “a certain group of people”, but that group of people can be different. For example, in Rom. 5:15, the phrase “the many died” refers to Adam’s descendents, the entire human race, except for Enoch and Elijah. Whereas, the phrase “abound to the many” refers to all believers, that is, those who receive grace and the gift of righteousness, vs. 17, and justification of life, vs. 18, and are made righteous, vs. 19. However, in 5:19, the phrase “the many were made sinners” refers to all mankind inclusively, all of Adam’s descendents, 3:23.]

 

[Another example is in Gen. 6:20, where Noah is commanded to take two of every kind on the ark. Does that mean two of every species of animal on the earth? Well, the Hebrew word “min”, translated as “kind”, has various meanings. It would include what biologists now designate as a species, genus, family, and order. – Dr. L. Richards’ Expository Dictionary of Bible Words, p. 375. Context would determine which it is. Some examples of its varied uses can be seen in Gen. 1:24 (e.g., cattle, creeping things, and beasts of the earth); Gen. 6:20 (e.g., birds, etc.); Gen. 1:21 (e.g., great sea monsters, winged birds, etc.); and Lev. 11:13-22 (e.g., eagle, four types of owls, heron, grasshopper, etc.). A raven is a “genus”, a falcon is “family”, and an owl is an “order”.]

 

4.      The principle of “interpreting according to the literary mold.” In that the type of literary form employed governs the attitude and spirit in which a document is approached, it is necessary for the interpreter to recognize literary forms as necessary to the interpretation of Scripture. The literary form (poetic, dramatic, historical, biographical, epistles, wisdom literature, etc.) governs the meanings of sentences and, therefore, the interpreter must be sensitive to the implications of the literary form for the interpretation of the passage of Scripture.

 

[E.g., it’s important to interpret Acts 1:4, 5 historically, “Jesus commanded them not to leave Jerusalem, but to wait for what the Father had promised … you shall be bap­tized with the Holy Spirit not many days from now.” Believers before Pentecost didn’t get the Holy Spirit on a permanent basis like believers do today upon conversion. Today we have the Holy Spirit upon conversion, Rom. 8:9; 1 Cor. 6:19; Eph. 1:13, 14; Acts 11:17 with 10:43-45. Believers don’t have to wait as they did before Pentecost. Another example is found in Deut. 1:39 where it says, “your sons, who this day have no knowledge of good or evil…” is an idiom that is an expression denoting exemption from an adult moral responsibility that they were not expected to make – Keil and Delitzsch, Commentary on the Old Testament, vol. 1, p. 290. “Sons” includes ages 0-19. In Num. 1:3; 14:29-31, those “20 years old and upward” were responsible; they were considered adults, as they could go to war.  Therefore, the phrase “no knowledge of good or evil” is not teaching the mistaken idea of an “age of accountability” as many conceive of it, but is rather an idiomatic expression.]

 

[E.g., Another example of literary form is poetry. This can be illustrated with synonymous parallelism, where lines parallel in thought use synonymous words. In Psa. 89:30, 31, it says, “If his sons forsake My law, And do not walk in My judgments, If they violate My statutes, And do not keep My commandments, then …” Here, we see the words “law, judgments, statutes, and commandments” all being synonyms rather than different things.]

 

5.      The principle of “interpretation by proper use of cross references.” The same topic may occur in two or more places in Scripture, and the interpreter may gather information from one reference to guide his interpretation of another. Such verbal cross-reference is a reference which contains the same word or expression occurring in the passage being interpreted.

 

[For example, in Gen. 2:17, God tells Adam that if he eats from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil that “in the day that you eat from it you shall surely die”. The Hebrew word “muth” is used in the imperfect with absolute infinitive, literally meaning, dying you shall die”. Man began to physically die (immediately and gradually deteriorate physically) from that day of disobedience in the Garden to eventual complete death later, and he immediately died spiritually (was separated from intimate relationship with God) that day. – Vine’s An Expository Dictionary of Biblical Words, p. 97. See Rom. 6:23; 5:12; Eph. 2:1.]

 

Con­ceptual cross-references are those references which, although not containing the same words, contain the same substance. They enable the interpreter to see a given passage in greater depth and detail.

 

Parallel cross-references are those passages in one book of the Bible which recount the same events or material in another part of the Bible. To get the full ac­count and the necessary facts before us, it is necessary to have all parallel passages examined.

 

[E.g., Matt. 27, Mk. 15, Lk. 23, and Jn. 19 are parallel cross-references on Christ’s death. Only Matthew includes the temple veil being torn in two, the rocks splitting, the graves opening, and the once dead believers coming alive.]

 

[Another example is the creation account of man in Gen. 1:26, 27, where it’s stated in very general terms, but in Gen. 2:7, 21, 22, the creation account of man is given in more detail. These are not two different creation accounts, but rather complementary accounts.]

 

[Another example is found in 1 Pet. 4:17, 18, where it talks about “not obeying the gospel”. What does this mean? By cross-referencing to Rom. 10:16, it becomes apparent that the word “heed”/“obey” has the same meaning of “believe”, as found in the last part of verse 16, where the word “heed”/“obey” is replaced by the word “believe” in the parallel clause. So, to “obey” the gospel is to “believe” the gospel.]

 

[Another example is in Psa. 112:9 where the word “horns” is used.  But what does it mean? Well, in 89:17, the word “horn” is used again, but here, the word “strength” is also used in the first part of the verse. Realizing that the Psalms use what is called synonymous parallelism (repetition of ideas/thought), it is concluded that the word “horn” is the same as the word “strength”.]

 

[E.g., did (Matt. 14:5) or didn’t (Mk. 6:20) Herod want to kill John the Baptist? Yes, Herod wanted to kill John the Baptist, as Matt. 14:5 states, but for a while he did not because he feared the multitude (Matt. 14:5) and because he was afraid of John (Mk. 6:20). Also, Mk. 6:20 does not state that Herod didn’t want John the Baptist killed. So, there’s no contradiction.]

 

6.      The principle of “the interpretation of figurative language.” Literal interpretation does not mean painful, wooden, or unbending literal rendition of every word and phrase. The lit­eral meaning of the figurative expression is the proper or natural meaning as understood by students of language. Whenever a figure is used, its literal meaning is precisely that mean­ing determined by grammatical studies of figures. Hence figurative interpretation does not pertain to the spiritual or mystical sense of Scripture, but to the literal sense. Some figures of speech are: simile, allegory, ellipsis, metaphor, paradox, irony, hyperbole, synecdoche, zeugma, euphemism, brachylogy, litotes, meiosis, oxymoron, personification, paronomasia, and metonymy.

 

[E.g., in John 10:9, Jesus says, “I am the door; if anyone enters through Me, he shall be saved…” This is a metaphor, a figure of speech in which one thing is likened to another different thing by being spoken of as if it were that other. So, the meaning of “door” is that Jesus is the only entrance to salvation. Some examples of hyperbole are found in Gen. 15:5; 28:14; and Eccles. 1:4. In Gen. 15:5, Abraham descendents are to be as innumerable as the stars of heaven, yet in Deut. 1:10, they already are said to be that numerous, showing that they really aren’t as innumerable as the stars of heaven. In Gen. 28:14, Abraham’s descendents are to be as innumerable as the dust of the earth, yet in 2 Chron. 1:9, they already are said to be that numerous, showing that they really aren’t as innumerable as the dust of the earth. In Eccles. 1:4, it says that the earth remains forever, but in Ezek. 25:15; 1 Ki. 9:3; 12:7; 1 Chron. 28:4; Prov. 21:28, the word “forever” does not mean without end but merely a long period of time. So, the earth does not remain forever as the Jehovah Witness cult teaches since in 2 Pet. 3:10-13, it teaches that the world will be destroyed with fire and a new earth created. Rev. 21:1 also teaches this idea.]

 

[E.g., in Ex. 32:14, it says that “the Lord changed His mind”, but in 1 Sam. 15:29, it says that God does not “change His mind”. First, the Hebrew “niham” has several meanings, such as: “grieve, regret, change of mind, relent, console, comfort, etc.”. Second, God is all-knowing (e.g., Isa. 46:9, 10; Psa. 147:5; 139:2-4). Since nothing takes God by surprise, He already knows what people are going to do in the future. Third, the Bible authors use anthropomorphic language. In Ex. 32:14, we have such a case. Here, the expression “changed His mind” is an anthropomorphism, meaning “relented” (to embark on another course of action; it suggests relief or comfort from a planned, undesirable course of action). It’s an alteration in the course and method of God’s procedure. A change in character and conduct of those with whom God is dealing leads to a corresponding change in His actions toward them, though God already knew this would happen due to His omniscience. So, it’s viewed as a change of mind though God knew all along it would happen. – Dr. Walvoord’s The Bible Knowledge Commentary, OT, pp. 156, 447.]

 

[E.g., In Acts 10:48, Peter orders the new believers “to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ”, which in Matt. 28:19, 20, Jesus tells His disciples to baptize in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. A synecdoche is a figure of speech where a part is used for a whole or vice-versa. Therefore, “Jesus” in Acts 10:48 represents “the whole Trinity” by way of a synecdoche. Synecdoches are found throughout the Bible. Some examples are: 2 Ki. 10:17, where the word “him”, referring to Ahab, is used for “all of Ahab’s family, relatives, and friends” (vss. 7, 11, 17); Josh. 10:40-42; 11:9, 10, 12, where the word “Joshua” is used for “all of Israel or the army of Israel” including Joshua (10:29-39; 11:7, 11); and 2 Sam. 10:18, where the word “David” is used for “the army of Israel”, including David (vs. 17).]