INTERPRETING THE BIBLE BY THE BIBLE

In Psa. 66:18, the word “regard” (Heb. “raah”) is used, but what does it mean? Looking at 1 Chron. 17:16-18; 1 Sam. 9:16; and Job 37:24, we see that the word “regard” means “to recognize with honor or respect”. So, in Psa. 66:18, the word “regard” means “to honor and so cling to”.

In Psa. 112:9, the word “horn” (Heb. “qeren”) is used, but what does it mean? From 89:17, it is seen from the Hebrew poetic device called synonymous parallelism involving repetitive ideas, that the word “horn” is a synonym for the word “strength”. And in fact, the Hebrew word “qeren” is translated as “strength” in Lam. 2:3. So, in Psa. 112:9, the word “horn” means “strength”.

In Prov. 3:7, the phrase “fear the Lord” is used, but what does that mean? Looking at 8:13, we see that the fear of the Lord is “to hate evil” or sins of various or all kinds. So, “to fear the Lord” is to hate all types of sin/evil as a way of respecting/reverencing God.

In Prov. 5:9, the word “vigor” (Heb. “hod”) is used, but what does it mean? A similar idea is found in Psa. 105:36, where the word “vigor” (Heb. “on”) is used in a context of virility (as it is in Psa. 78:51). The context of Proverbs 5 is that of warnings about involvement with adulteresses, verse 3. The last part of 5:9 talks about giving “your years to the cruel one”, 5:10 talks about giving your “strength” to strangers, and 5:11 talks about “your flesh and your body are consumed”. So, from the immediate context and the topical cross-referencing, we conclude that “vigor” means “sexual, physical energy” from having intercourse, which, in turn, has reference to one’s health lost to sexual diseases.

In Prov. 8:17, it says, “I love those who love me”, but who is the I/me? Looking at verses 1, 12, 22, and 9:1, 2, we see that the “I/me” are personifications for “wisdom”.

In Prov. 10:12, the word “covers” (Heb. “kasah”) is used, but what does it mean? Looking at Psa. 32:1 and 85:2, where the poetic device of repeating the same idea but with different words is used, we find that “covered” is synonymous with “forgiven”. And, in fact, in Neh. 4:5, the Hebrew word “kasah” is translated as “forgive”. So, love “forgives” all transgressions or puts them out of sight.

In Prov. 11:25, the words “waters” (Heb. “ravah”) and “watered” (Heb. “raveh”) are used, but what do they mean? Looking at the context in vss. 24, 26, we see the idea of giving contrasted with withholding being expressed and their consequences. And in verse 25, the immediate context talks about the generous man prospering. So, “waters” refers to “gives generously”, and “watered” refers to being “given to generously”.

In Prov. 21:2, the word “hearts” (Heb. “leb”) is used, but what does it mean? Looking at 16:2, we see in a similar context that the word used there is “motives”. So, the word “hearts” is a synonym for “motives”.

In Eccles. 1:4, the word “forever” (Heb. “olam”) is used, but what does it mean in light of what 2 Pet. 3:10-13 says? Looking at Psa. 21:4 with 91:15, 16 and 1 Chron. 29:28, we find that “forever and ever” is used as a hyperbole, meaning “a long life”. In 1 Ki. 9:3, “forever” has the meaning of “as long as it exists”, as 9:7; 2 Chron. 36:19; Ezra 5:12 show. In 1 Ki. 12:7; 1 Sam. 1:22; 27:12; Deut. 15:17; and Prov. 21:28, the word “forever” is used as a hyperbole for “a life-time”. And in fact, in Isa. 42:14; 57:11; and 64:5, the Hebrew word “olam” is translated as “a long time”. So, in Eccles. 1:4, the word “forever” means “a long time”.

In Eccles. 7:16, the phrase “excessively righteous” is used, but what does it mean? Looking at Matt. 23:23, 24; 12:1-7, 10-12; 15:1-6; Lk. 18:9-14; Rom. 12:3; and Gal. 6:3, we see that some people are “legalistically righteous” or more righteous in their own thinking than they actually are righteous. We can never be biblically too righteous, as seen in 1 Pet. 1:15, 16; 2 Cor. 7:1; Matt. 5:48.

In Eccles. 7:16, the phrase “overly wise” is used, but what does it mean? As mentioned above, some people think they are more than what they actually are (Rom. 12:3; Gal. 6:3). Some people think they are wiser than they actually are, which is wrong (Prov. 3:7; Rom. 12:16; 11:25), while others have a conceited (1 Cor. 8:1) or worldly wisdom (James 3:14, 15) that are bad. So, people shouldn’t be wise in their own estimation nor be wise in evil (Rom. 16:19; Jer. 4:22).

In Eccles. 8:9, the phrase “under the sun” is used, but what does it mean? Looking at the context of verse 14, we see that it refers to “what’s done on the earth”.

In Eccles. 9:5, the phrase “do not know anything” is used, but what does it mean? Looking at 9:3, 6, 9 and 8:14, we see that the context (as well as in 1:3, 13, 14; 2:17) is dealing with what’s going on “on the earth” (or by metonymy, “under the sun”). Also, looking at Jn. 11:49, we see that a hyperbole is used regarding certain people knowing nothing at all, even when they are alive. And in looking at Lk. 16:22-31; Eccles. 12:7; Job 14:14; Rev. 14:11; 20:10, we find that dead people are not annihilated, but do know things and are conscious. So, in Eccles. 9:5, “do not know anything” refers to “not knowing about what’s going on on the earth” (an ellipsis).

In Eccles. 9:5, the phrase “they no longer have a reward” is used, but what does it mean? Looking at the context of 9:6 and 9:9, we see that it’s dealing with all that is done on earth (“under the sun”) while alive. So, the dead no longer have a reward in all that is done on earth (an ellipsis) since they are not on the earth any longer.

In Eccles. 9:5, the phrase “their memory is forgotten” is used, but what does it mean? Looking at 8:10, we see the context of dead people being forgotten rather than remembered by the living. Also, Lk. 16:22-31 shows that earthly dead people do have a memory. So, “their memory is forgotten” by those living on the earth (an ellipsis).

In Isa. 19:15, the phrases “head or tail” and “palm branch or bulrush” are used, but what do they mean? Looking at 9:14, 15, we see that “the head” is “the elder and honorable man”, and “the tail” is “the prophet who teaches falsehood”.

In 1 Sam. 15:22, the phrases “burnt offerings” and “sacrifices” are used, but what do they mean? First, looking at Jer. 7:22, 23, we find that burnt offerings and sacrifices were not commanded by God, but obedience to what He did command was (Prov. 21:3) expected. Second, looking at Num. 7:2, 15 and 1 Ki. 8:62, 64, we find that burnt offerings in the form of bullocks, rams, or sheep were voluntarily offered, not for sins committed, but for various occasions. And sacrifices, such as peace offerings for the purpose of: thanks (Lev. 7:11, 12), votive/special vows (Num. 15:3; Lev. 7:16), and free will (Lev. 7:16; Num. 15:3), or meal/grain offerings (Lev. 2:1-16), were all basically optional or voluntary offerings.

In Matt. 9:6, the phrase “Son of Man” is used, but what does it mean? Looking at Dan. 7:13, 14, we find in this heavenly scene that the phrase refers to the Messiah to whom God the Father gives an everlasting kingdom that all people might serve Him. And Jesus is the Messiah/Christ (Jn. 1:41), the king (Jn. 1:49), the King of kings (1 Tim. 6:14, 15; Rev. 1:5), reigning forever and ever (Rev. 1:6, 7; 11:15; Lk. 1:31-33), with people serving Him (Rev. 7:15-17; 22:3). So, “Son of Man” is Jesus’ Messianic title (Matt. 16:27, 28) as the Redeemer (Lk. 19:10), the king (Matt. 19:28; 25:31, 34), the One who will judge the world (Jn. 5:22, 27), and the Son of God (Matt. 26:63).

In Matt. 10:28, the word “destroy” (Gk. “apollumi”) is used, but what does it mean? Looking at the same word “destroy” in Rom. 14:15, we see that the word means “ruin” or “cause the loss of well-being to”. It, however, does not mean “annihilate”. Also, the Greek word “apollumi” is translated as “ruin” in Matt. 9:17. So, “destroy” in 10:28 means “cause the loss of well-being to”.

In Matt. 21:43, the word “nation” (Gk. “ethnos”) is used, but what does it mean? It cannot refer to the Jews/Israel because in context (21:43, 45), the Jews or Israel is being contrasted with this “nation”. Also, it would have to refer to some group of believers because “the kingdom of God” will be given to them because they “produce the fruit of it”. In 1 Pet. 2:9, the Church is referred to as a “chosen race, … a holy nation, a people for God’s own possession”. Also, the Greek word “ethnos” is translated as “people” in Acts 8:9. So, the word “nation” here refers to “the Church” or believers (as it does in 1 Pet. 2:9 with 1:8, 9, 18-21, 23).

In Matt. 26:26, 28, the word “is” (Gk. “esti”) is used, but what does it mean? The word “is” can be used as a connecting and uniting verb, as in Mk. 13:21. “Is” can also be used to mean “an equivalency to”, as it does in Mk. 12:35. Or, “is” can be used to mean “represents” or “symbolizes”, as it does here in Matt. 26:26, 28. Context is what determines the meaning of the word “is”. Since Jesus was physically standing in His body in front of His disciples for all to see at this exact time while He was holding in His hand the bread and giving them the portions as He broke them off, the meaning of “is” would not be that of literal “equivalency to” or literally “the same as”. Rather, the figurative meaning of “represents” or “symbolizes” is the most logical and obvious meaning, based both on the fact that His body was physically present in serving the bread and the fact that Jesus used other metaphorical references to Himself (Jn. 10:9; 15:1, 5; 8:12). Also, the meaning for the word “is” (or “was” or “am”) as “represents” or “symbolizes” is plentifully found in Scripture (e.g., Gal. 4:25, 26; 1 Cor. 10:4; Acts 4:11; Matt. 11:14 with Jn. 1:21 and Lk. 1:13, 17; then there is Jude 1:12; Eph. 2:20; James 3:6; Ex. 4:22; Psa. 22:6; Jer. 5:8; 46:20; 51:7; Isa. 48:4; 54:5; 56:3).

In Jn. 1:1, the phrase “the Word was God” is used, but who is it referring to? Looking at 1:14-18, we see that the Word “became flesh” and dwelt among the Jews during the apostle John’s time, and they beheld His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth. That description only fits Jesus Christ, who’s referred to in 1:17, 18. Also, John’s comments about this person being of higher rank and existing before him are repeated in 1:30 and refer to Jesus in 1:29. And in Rev. 19:13, Jesus Christ is referred to as “the Word of God”, as it is He who rules the nations (Rev. 19:15 with 12:5; 20:4) and is King of kings and Lord of lords (19:16 with 17:14; 5:6-12; and Jn. 1:29).

In Jn. 7:3, 5, 10, the word “brothers” (Gk. “adelphos”) is used, but what does it mean? It does not mean “believers”, as the word is contrasted with “disciples” in 7:3, and it says in 7:5 that these “brothers” did not believe in Him/Jesus. Rather, “brothers” refers to Jesus’ half-brothers (all sons of Mary), as seen in Matt. 13:55-58 and Mk. 6:3-6, who were non-believers at this time. The word “brothers” does not refer to “cousins” (Gk. “anepsios”) nor to any other relatives of Jesus, but rather to His half-brothers.

In Jn. 12:32, the phrase “lifted up from the earth” is used, but what does it mean? From the context of 12:33, we see that it is some kind of death. From 8:28, 40, we see that it’s some type/way of being killed by others. From 3:14, we see that it’s the same type of “being lifted up” as the serpent in the wilderness (Num. 21:9), which was on a standard/pole. From 19:10, 16, 18, we see that Jesus was crucified. So, to be lifted up in 12:32 means to be crucified.

In Jn. 12:32, the word “all” (Gk. “pantas”) is used, but what does it mean? We know from Scripture that every single human being from the beginning of time to the end of time are not going to have eternal life in heaven with Jesus Christ (Matt. 7:13, 14; Rev. 20:11-15; 14:9-11; 2 Thes. 1:8-10; Matt. 25:41, 46), so Jesus is not going to draw every single human being to Himself as a result of His crucifixion. We know that the word “all” can have other meanings other than “everyone inclusively”. “All” can mean “all kinds of”, as it does in 1 Tim. 6:10; Acts 10:12; Matt. 5:11 or “every kind of” (e.g., Matt. 10:1; Eph. 4:19), or it can mean “all of a certain kind” (e.g., 1 Cor. 15:22, “believers” – vss. 23, 24; 1 Tim. 2:6, “believers/Christ’s sheep” – with Jn. 10:11, 15, 26). We know from Jn. 6:44, 65 that only those whom the Father draws can and will come to Christ. We also know that the word “all” doesn’t always mean “all inclusively”, as seen in Rom. 15:14, where it means “all the truths just expounded by Paul”. Or, as seen in Acts 19:27, where it’s a hyperbole, meaning “a lot of people”. Or, as seen in 1 Cor. 10:33, where it means “all kinds of people” in “all kinds of things allowable”. So, “all” in Jn. 12:32 means “all believers, as exemplified in 1 Thes. 4:11-17.

In Jn. 13:10, the phrase “you are clean” is used, but what does it mean? In the context of verse 11, betrayal of Jesus is associated with not being clean. So, “clean’“, here, is not referring to physical cleanliness, but to metaphorical cleanliness. Looking at 15:3, we see that some type of cleansing took place because of what Jesus had previously said. In 6:40, 47, 63, 68 we find that Jesus had told them how to have eternal life, that is, to be spiritually cleansed from all their sins, and that was by believing in Him as the Christ or Savior, which all of them had done except for Judas (6:70, 71). Acts 15:7, 9 shows that spiritual cleansing takes place through faith/belief in the gospel. 2 Pet. 1:1, 5, 9 also talks about purification from sin because of one’s faith in Jesus Christ as God and Savior. And Titus 3:5 talks about how regeneration (being born again spiritually through the word of God, 1 Pet. 1:23) washes spiritually a person who has faith in Christ Jesus as Savior (Titus 1:1, 4). So, the word “clean” in Jn. 15:3 refers to being spiritually clean from all sin.

In Acts 16:6 and Eph. 5:26, the phrase “the word” is used, but what does it mean? Looking at the context of Acts 16:10, 17, we see that “the word” refers to “the gospel”, “the way of salvation”. Acts 11:19, 20 says it’s “the Lord Jesus”, and 18:5 says it’s “that Jesus was the Christ”. All these phrases are different ways of saying the same thing, referring to “the gospel of salvation”. Acts 15:7, 9 is similar to Eph. 5:26, “cleansing” with “the word of the gospel” when people believe it.

In 1 Cor. 13:10, the phrase “the perfect” (Gk. “to teleion”) is used, but what does it mean? From the context of that same verse, we see that the word “perfect” is of greater wholeness/completeness than is “the partial”. From 13:8, 9, we see that “the partial” deals with the spiritual gifts of special knowledge (12:8) and prophecy (12:10) given by the Holy Spirit. So, perfect knowledge and perfect prophecy would terminate or do away with partial knowledge and partial prophecy. From Col. 1:28, we see that the exact Greek words “to teleion” are found and are translated as “complete”. So, “the perfect” is “the completed” revelations of God (i.e., prophecy and special knowledge given directly by God to man), which occurred when the Bible was finished/completed/finalized in 95 AD.

In Col. 1:15, the word “first-born” is used, but what does it mean? First, we know that it does not and cannot mean first one created because God’s Son, Jesus Christ, was not created, but has existed from eternity past (Jn. 1:1, 14, 18; 17:5; 8:58; Mic. 5:2 with Lk. 2:4-11; Isa. 9:6). Second, it does not mean first one numerically because in Col. 1:18, where the word is used, Jesus was not the first person to rise from the dead (as seen from Jn. 11:44; Lk. 7:12-15; 1 Ki. 17:17-23). Third, in Psa. 89:27, where the poetic device of repetition of thought is used, the word “highest” is substituted for “first-born”. So, in Col. 1:15, the word “first-born” means “highest/pre-eminent/top in position, rank, privilege, or importance”.

In Col. 4:5, the word “outsiders” is used, but what does it mean? From the context, Paul is talking to Christians (1:2) about speaking the gospel of Christ, obviously referring to evangelizing the spiritually lost, and then tells these Christians to make the most of their opportunity toward outsiders. So, it appears that outsiders are non-Christians. By looking at 1 Cor. 5:12, we see “outsiders” being contrasted with those “within” (the church, vs. 13), or believers (1:2). So again, outsiders appear to be nonbelievers. Then in Mk. 4:11, those “outside” are contrasted with Jesus’ followers/disciples, and in 1 Tim. 3:7, it talks about church overseers being required to have a good reputation with those “outside” (the church). So, “outsiders” refers to “nonbelievers”.

In 1 Thes. 4:13, the word “asleep” (Gk. “koimao”) is used, but what does it mean? Looking at the context, we see that “asleep” is associated with “died” and “rose again” in verse 14, and is contrasted with “alive” in verse 15, and is then associated with “dead” and “rise” and “alive” in verses 16 and 17. So, “asleep” seems to refer to or mean “physically dead”. Then looking at Jn. 11:11-14, we see that “asleep” is specifically referring to being “physically dead” and not literal sleep nor soul-sleep.

In 2 Thes. 1:8, the phrase “obey the gospel” is used, but what does it mean? The context in verse 10 is dealing with “believing”. The expanded context in 2:10-14, shows that faith/belief in the truth/gospel gains salvation (vss. 13, 14); whereas, not believing the truth/gospel brings judgment/condemnation (vs. 12). Looking at Rom. 10:16, we see similar phraseology when it talks about “heeding” (obeying) the “glad tidings” (gospel), and then compares that to (or repeats the same idea in different words) “believing” their “report” (message, Isa. 53:1; the glad tidings or gospel, Rom. 10:15). Also, in Jn. 3:36 (NASB), it talks about “believing” to gain/acquire eternal life and “not obeying” to get the wrath of God rather than eternal life. So, the opposite of believing is not obeying or disbelieving. And since the gospel is that Christ, God’s Son, died for our sins and rose again (1 Cor. 15:1-4), and we are commanded to believe the gospel (Mk . 1:14, 15) or the name of God’s Son, Jesus Christ (1 Jn. 3:23), which is the same thing in different words, then to obey the gospel is to obey the command to believe the gospel.

In 2 Pet. 2:1, the word “bought” is used, but what does that mean? Looking at Deut. 32:6; 7:8; Ex. 6:5, 6; and Josh. 24:17, we see that the Lord “bought” the Israelites by delivering/emancipating them from Egyptian bondage/slavery. So in 2 Pet. 2:1, to have “bought” these false teachers means to have “delivered” them from some harm and/or privation, as in Jonah 3:10; 4:11; Judges 8:34; Matt. 5:45; and Lk. 6:35.

In 2 Pet. 3:9, the words “you”, “any”, and “all” are used, but who do they refer to? Looking at the context of 3:1, 8, 14, 15, 17, we see that these terms all refer to the “beloved” whom Peter was addressing, and the “beloved” are his addressees in 1:1 [“those who have received (Gk. “lagchano” meaning “by divine allotment obtained”) a faith of the same kind as ours, by the righteousness of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ”], believers, in other words. Also, in 3:1, Peter states that this is the second letter that he is writing to his addressees. And the addressees of Peter’s first letter are “those chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, by the sanctifying work of the Spirit, that they may obey Jesus Christ and be sprinkled with His blood” (1 Pet. 1:1, 2). So, the “you”, “any”, and “all” are all referring to God’s chosen people (i.e., believers – past, present, and future ones whom God predestined to be saved, Eph. 1:4, 5, 11; Rom. 8:29, 30).

In Rev. 1:12, 16, the phrases “seven golden lampstands” and “seven stars” are used, but what do they mean? We don’t have to look far to find out. In 1:20, God tells us, the seven lampstands are the “seven churches”, which are discussed in chapters 2 and 3. And the seven stars are the “seven angels” of the seven churches.