Public Administration - 1998 (Prelims)
Time Allowed : Two
Hours Maximum
Marks : 300
1.
The Railway budget was separated from the
Central Budget in the year
(a) 1920 (b) 1921 (c) 1922 (d) 1923
2. The
Speaker of the Lok Sabha has been empowered to exercise 'Guillotine'
(a) After demands are discussed
(b) after demands are discussed and passed
(c) When the time allotted for budget discussions is exhausted
(d) when the demands are passed with a cut
3.
Which of the following are ensured by the Budget?
1. Financial and legal accountability of the Executive to the Legislature.
2. Accountability of each subordinate authority is Executive to the one
immediately above in the hierarchy
3. Accountability of the legislature to the Judiciary
4. Accountability of government departments to Finance Ministry.
(a) l and 2 (b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2,3 and 4 (d) 1,2 and 4
4.
Which of the following Committees consist of representatives of both the Houses
namely Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
1. Estimate Committee
2. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
3. Public Accounts Committee
4. Committee on Public Undertakings
(a) l and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5.
Which of the following tools of control may be adopted for raising a discussion
in House on a matter of urgent public importance
(a) Censure motion
(b) Adjournment motion
(c) Calling attention
(d) Cut motion
6.
Consider the following statements:
The proposal to merge the Air-India and Indian Airlines into a single holding
company is designed to
1. achieve flexibility and co-ordination
2. increasing competitiveness
3. avoid financial loss
4. get rid of surplus staff .
Of these statements
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 1 and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
7.
A Judicial remedy whereby the State inquires
into the legality of the claim which a party asserts to an office or franchise,
is better known as
(a) Mandamus (b) Certiorari
(c) Prohibition (d) Quo Warrant
8.
Which one of the following statements about the Planning Commission in India is
true?
(a) It is a constitutional body
(b) it is a statutory body
(c) It has been created by an executive order
(d) It is quasi-judicial in character
9.
Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Plan- Ding Commission of
India?
(a) Formulation of a plan
(b) Execution of development plans
(c) Appraisal of plan progress
(d) Making recommendations on policy and administration
10.
Out of the various forms of public enterprises in India, which one of the
following is constituted through a separate statutory enactment?
(a) Departmental (b)
Corporation
(c) Company (d) Control Board
11.
Which one of the following commissions recommended the setting up of a Public
Service Commission for recruitment of personnel to the Public Services in India
?
(a) Simon Commission
(b) Lee Commission
(c) Atlee Commission
(d) Radcliff Commission
12.
Consider the following statements:
The Finance Commission makes recommendations to the President in respect of
1. the distribution of net proceeds of taxes to be shares between the Union and
the States
2. assessment of natural, capital and human resources
3. the principles governing grants in aid to the States
4. any other matter concerning financial relations between the Union and the
States
Of these statements :
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 2 and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
13. Who
allocates the business to various Ministries and Departments in the Government
of
India ?
(a) President's Secretariat
(b) Prime Minister's Secretariat
(c) Parliament's Secretariat
(d) Cabinet Secretariat
14.
Which of the following are some of the functions of the Cabinet Secretariat ?
1. To provide secretarial assistance to the Cabinet
2. To provide secretarial services to various standing committees and 'adhoc
committees of the Cabinet
3. To assist ministers in the discharge of their parliamentary responsibilities
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
15.
Consider the following statements:
The working of India's ONGC reveals that Government (Ministry of Petroleum) has
bestowed on it
1. financial freedom
2. operational freedom
3. freedom to take decision at the field manager level 4. freedom from
administered prices
5. freedom for personnel management .
Of these statements
(a) 1 alone is
correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct
16.
The economic liberalization policy of the Government of India has provided for
which of the following measures for the reforms of the public enterprises ?
1. Exit Policy
2. Privatization of PSUs
3. Providing autonomy to top profit-making units
4. Globalization of PSUs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
17. The
'Navratna' policy of the Government of India provides the PSUs with which of the
following?
1. flexibility
2. Financial autonomy
3. Administrative autonomy
4. Freedom for joint venture with equity within 5% of their net worth
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
18. The
Dis-investment Commission has proposed a stock option scheme for the employees
of PSUs. which of the following are its main features?
1. No physical transfer of shares from the PSUs to their employee
2. Management of the shares by a trust composed of experts
3. Allotment of shares to new employees .
4. Sale of shares in the stock market by the shareholding employees
(a) l and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
19.
Consider the following steps:
1. Closure of sick units
2. Nationalization of joint public private units
3. Introduction of MOU system
4. Golden hand-shake
5. National Renewal Fund The reform steps taken by the Government of India prior
to its New Economic Policy regarding the public sector undertakings include
(a) l and 2 (b) 1, 2,
3 and 4
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 5
20.
There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid
and advice the President who shall in the exercise of his functions act in
accordance with his advice. This provision in the Constitution has been laid
down by which one of the following Constitutional Amendment Act?
(a) 41st (b) 42nd (c)
43rd (d) 72nd
21.
Match List I (features of the Indian Constitution with List II (their sources)
and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Fundamental Rights 1.Germany
B. Directive Principles 2. U. S. A. of State Policy
C. Emergency Powers 3. U. K.
D. Rule of Law 4. Ireland
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b)
2 4 1 3
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 2 4 3 1
22.
Which of the following statements are true?
1.In USA, there is a legal ban strikes by public employees
2. In India, strike by public employees is an offence under the Essential
Services Act
3.In UK, the National Whitely Council's resolution bans strikes by public
employees
4. In UK, executive rules regard strikes as offences by public employees
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and
3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
23.
Consider the following statements:
The Comparative Public Administration method of Rigs emphasizes a shift from
1. normative to empirical
2. ideograph to homothetic
4. bureaucratic to non-bureaucratic
5. historical to philosophical
Of these statements the correct statements are
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3,4 and 5 (d) 2, 4 and 5
24.
Under their service rules, the British Civil Servants are required to be
(a) neutral in politics
(b) can be partisan
(c) can be partly neutral and partly partisan
(d) can pursue active party politics
25.
The credit for coining and applying the concept of indicative planning goes to
(a) erstwhile USSR
(b) Britain
(c) USA
(d) France
26. In
which of the following modern states do the civil servants enjoy the legal right
to take time off from their administrative career duties and responsibilities in
order to contest elections and join politics for a term?
(a) USA
(b) Britain
(c) Russia
(d) France
27.
Consider the following statements:
The members of the erstwhile Soviet bureaucracy
1. had the right to participate in active party politics
2. could not take part in party politics
3. could criticize the policies of the government
4. had the right to pursue private economic activities
Of these statements :
(a) 1 alone is correct (b) 1
and 4 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct (d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
28.
The United States established the merit system of recruitment to the civil
services through
(a) the Pendleton Act
(b) the Budget and Accounting Act
(c) the Civil Service Reform Act
(d) an executive order of the President
29.
Consider the following statements :
The Civi1 Service Reform Act,1978 of United States introduced
1. performance-budgeting system
2. performance bonus for members of the senior executive service
3.. merit pays provision for middle managerial personnel
4. performance appraisal system .
5. office of Personnel Management
Of these statements :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b)
2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 5 are correct (d) 1, 4 and 5 are correct
30.
Which of the following models were designed by Fred Riggs for the study of the
administrative of developing nations?
1. Bureaucratic
2. Decision-making
3. Non-government
4. Prismatic/sala / bazaar canteen
5. Agreria-Industrial
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2,
3 and 4
(c) 4 and 5 (d) 1, 4 and 5
31. Who
among the following remained the Chairman of the Comparative Administration
Group for ten years in the United States?
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) Herbert Simon
(c) Dwight Waldo
(d) Fred Riggs
32.
Consider the following statements During the regime of Margaret Thatcher,
Britain worked towards
1. strengthening the civil service
2. weakening the administrative state
3. strengthening the market economy
4. weakening the welfare state
5. privatizing the public sector units
Of these statements :
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 5 are correct (d) 2, 3, 4and 5 are correct
33.
When there is no majority in the State Legislature Assembly the principal
consideration governing the choice of the Chief Minister by the Governor of the
State is the
(a) ability of the person who is most
likely to command a stable , majority in the House
(b) largest political party in the Legislative Assembly
(c) the combination of several parties as a unit
(d) the loyalty and support of the party members to their respective party
programs and policies
34.
Which one of the following is a form of urban
governance found in India?
(a) Council Mayor
(b) Commissioner
(c) Mayor-in-Council
(d) Council-Manager
35.
Consider the following:
1. Rural-Urban Relationship Committee
2. The Committee of Ministers on Augmentation of Financial Resources of urban
local bodies
3. Local finance Enquirer Committee
4. National Commission on Urbanization
The correct chronological sequence is .
(a) 2, 3, 4, 1
(b) 3, 2, 1, 4
(c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 3, 2, 4, 1
36."Local
self government is and must be the basis of any true system of democracy. We
have got rather into the habit of thinking democracy at the top and not so much
below. Democracy at the top may not be a success unless we build its foundation
from below" This statement is attributed to
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jaiprakash Narain
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Vinoba Bhave
37.
Nagar Palika Bill was first introduced in Parliament during the Prime
Ministership of
(a) V. P. Singh (b)
Chandrashekhar
(c) Rajiv Gandhi (d) Narasimha Rao
38.
The need for constitutional sanction to village panchayats was first felt by
(a) Balwant ray Mehta Committee
(b) Asoka Mehta Committee
(c) V.K.R. . Rao Committee (d) L .M. Singhvi Committee
39.
State Finance Commission is appointed by a State Government every five year to
determine (a) financial resources of the state for
placing state's requirement before the Union Government
(b) development requirements of the state for formulating state Five year plans
(c) budgetary requirements of various departments of the state government
(d) pattern of distribution of state's tax revenue between the state government
and local bodies (both rural and urban) and the pattern of grants-in-aid to
local bodies
Directions:-
The following 21 items consist of two statements, one labeled as' Assertion A'
and the other labeled as 'Reason R'. You are to \examine these two statements
carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true
and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select
the your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer
sheet accordingly.
Codes :
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
40.
Assertion (A) : The relation between a
generalist and a specialist is that of a senior and subordinate.
Reason (R) : A specialist is required to assist the generalist in the
formulation and implementation of Public Policy.
41.
Assertion (A) : Both Public and Private Administration operate in the
same social environment.
Reason (R) : Pressure group activity is more intense in Public than
Private Administration.
42.
Assertion (A) : Public Administration is an
action oriented applied social science because it is engaged in the task of
implementing Public Policies.
Reason (R) : The need to adopt management science and techniques for
improving the skills of Public Administrators can hardly be overemphasized.
43.
Assertion (A) :
Public Administration is characterized by an absence of profit motive.
Reason (R) : The basic aim of governmental activities is not to maximize
profit, but to promote societal welfare.
44.
Assertion (A) :
Development approach to the study of Public Administration emerged due to
increased realisation of their relevance of the western concepts in
understudying the problems of third world nations.
Reason (R) : Development approach aims at establishing propositions about
administrative behavior, which transcend national boundaries.
45.
Assertion (A) : Classical theory views
organisation as a formal structure of authority based on universal principles.
Reason (R) : Classical theory views the human beings who run an
organisation as mere cogs in the machine.
46.
Assertion (A) : The responsibility and
authority of each supervisor should be clearly defined in writing.
Reason (R) : Responsibility should always be coupled with corresponding
authority .
47.
Assertion (A) : In every modem state the
every increasing administration has focused attention on the urgent need for
unity in administration.
Reason (R) : Integration and co-ordination have, therefore, become
Sine-qua-non of a good administrative system today.
48.
Assertion (A) : In an organisation such an
environment should be created that everyone puts in his best in the work and the
result is maximum output,
Reason ( R) : Supervision is to achieve co-ordination among the various
units of an organisation.
49. Assertion (A) : It is not always easy to separate means from ends while making decisions. . Reason (R) : An apparent and may be only a means for some future end.
50.
Assertion (A) : Communication involves
something more than will transmission of message or transmission and physical
receipt of the same.
Reason (R) : Communication is the process through which two or more
persons exchange ideas.
51.
Assertion (A) :
Leadership is a continuous process of influencing behavior .
Reason (R) : Leaders must show a genuine human concern for subordinates.
52.
Assertion (A) : "Grapevine" is a means of
communication. It stresses the operation of social forces at work place.
Reason (R) : Informal communication helps to minimize conflict in the
organization.
53.
Assertion (A) : Theory 'Y' suggests a new
approach and emphasizes the co-operative effort of management and employees.
Reason (R) : Theory 'Y' emphasizes that most people have little capacity
for creativity.
54.
Assertion (A) : Lack of promotion system
has a marked retroactive effect on all processes of personnel management.
Reason (R) : Promotionsystemisvita1forattracting and retaining talented
persons in public services.
55.
Assertion (A) : Though the Central Service
officers are not All India service officers the nature of their task and
postings make them truly Ali-Indian character.
Reason (R) : Unlike officers of All-India services ( Central service
officers do not work under State governments while working in the States.
56.
Assertion (A) : In India the Government
provides for different kinds of mechanism for the settlement of disputes with
its employees.
Reason (R) : Harmonious relations between employees and the employer lead
to optimum output.
57.
Assertion (A} : The estimates received from
various , ministries are finally scrutinized by the Union Finance Ministry .
Reason (R) : The Union Finance Ministry consists of Departments of
Revenue, Expenditure, Economic Affairs, Banking Finance
58.
Assertion (A) : President of India is the
Chief Executive of Government of India.
Reason (R) : President of India is elected by the elected members of
Parliament and elected members of state legislative assemblies.
59.
Assertion (A) : Reservation of seats for
women in Panchayati Raj bodies will pave the way for their political
empowerment.
Reason (R) : Empowerment of women is essential for the achievement of
democracy and development.
60.
Assertion (A) : The Chief Minister of a
State is the head of the Council of Ministers of that State.
Reason (R) : The Chief Minister is responsible to State Legislative
Assembly and enjoys the support of a majority in the House.
61.
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
1. New Public Administration……………….. Frank Marini
2. Philosophy of Administration……………… L. Meriam
3. Politics Administration Dichotomy…………….. W. Wilson
4. Conflict resolution through integration………… M. P. Follett
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b)
1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
62.
Which one of the following is NOT the function of Public Administration ?
(a) To establish public health
programs
(b) To resolve problems of foreign policy
(c) To settle disputes between private companies and labor unions
(d) To obtain co-operation from the public in implementing public policies
63.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer :
List I (Authors) List II (Books)
A. Gulick & Urwick 1. Public Administration :
A Comparative
Perspective
B. Dwight Waldo 2. Principles of Public
Administration
C. Ferrel Heady 3. Papers on the Science of Public
Administration
D. Willoughby 4. The Administrative State
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 3 2 1
64.
Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer :
List I List II
A. Fayol 1. Public Administration is concerned
with the what and how of
government
B. Gulick 2. Public Administration mainly has to do
with the activities of the
executive branch
C. F. M. Marx 3.
Administration has to do with planning , organization, command,
coordination and control
D. Dimock 4. Public Administration embraces every area
and every activity
under the jurisdiction of public
policy
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b)
2 3 1 4
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 2 3 4 1
65. The
influence of socio psychological factors on the worker's output was first proved
by:
(a) Mary P. Follett (b)
Frederick W. Taylor
(c) Elton Mayo (d) Rensis Likert
66.
According to Paul Appleby which of the following aspects differentiate
government administration from its private counterpart ?
1. Breadth of scope and impact
2. Public accountability
3. Political character
4. Bureaucracy
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3
and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1,3 and 4
67.
Which of the following statements are correct in respect of cameralists ?
1. They did much for the training of administrators
2. They were a group of French scholars
3. The foremost among them was G. Zincke
4. They combined professional posts with public service
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
68.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three problem are as identified by Dahl
in his "The Science of Public Administration" ?
(a) Values (b)
Personality differences
(c) Policy making (d) Socio-culture variations
69.
Consider the following statements :
New Public Administration is
1. anti-positivist
2. supportive of politics -administration dichotomy
3. anti-bureaucratic
4. client-oriented
Of these statements
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
70.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence in
which the following approaches to the Study of Public Administration as a
discipline evolves ?
(a) Classical Approach. Human
Relations Approach, Policy Approach. Behavioral Approach
(b) Classical Approach, Policy Approach. Behavioral Approach. Human Relations
Approach
(c) Classical Approach. Behavioral Approach, Human Relations Approach, Policy
Approach
(d) Classical Approach, Human Relations Approach. Behavioral Approach, Policy
Approach
71.
According to classical school, 'the Science of Public Administration' was based
on
(a) absence of ethical or normative
values
(b) presence of codified principles and techniques
(c) presence of scientific principles and methods of universal application
(d) presence of empirical exact knowledge
72.
All persons in authority , who control the work of others, are supervisors.
Which one of the following methods of supervision was NOT suggested by Millet ?
(a) Prior approval of individual
projects
(b) Inspection of result as it leads to waste of time and energy
(c) A reporting system on work progress
(d) Budgetary limitations upon the magnitude of operations
73.
According to Henri Fayol the top management/higher civil service is responsible
for the performance of five important functions, namely
(a) planning, organising, command,
co-ordination and control
(b) policy making, planning, management, communication and reporting
(c) organisation, budgeting, public relation, administrative reform and
delegation
(d) decision -making, delegation, planning, co-ordination and control
74. In
his search for scientific approach to management, Fredrick W. Taylor said: "What
constitutes a fari day's work will be a question for scientific investigation,
instead of a subject to be bargained and haggled over".
In this statement, Taylor used the term "a fair day's work" to ,
(a) Limit the working hours of
labour
(b) Fix wages on piece-rate basis
(c) Save labour from exploitation by management
(d) Eliminate work at night
75. The
Hawthorne experiments of Mayo revealed the importance of
(a) standardization of work
procedure
(b) informal social forces in the organisation
(c) payment on group basis
(d) management response to workers' demands
76.
Which of the following pairs of authors and. their characterization of
bureaucracy are correctly matched ?
1. M. Weber...................... Most rational form of organisation
2. K. Marx......................... Bearer of private interests
3. R. Merton...................... causing 'goal displacement'
4. M. Michels..................... Creates "trained incapacity"
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
77.
Who, among the following, was instrumental in the evolution of the Concept of
New Public Administration ?
(a) F. Marini (b) H.
George Fredrickson
(c) Dwight Waldo (d) H. A. Simon
78.
Which of the following components are present in Weber's bureaucratic model ?
1. Hierarchical arrangement of offices
2. Division of work
3. Written rules for carrying out assigned tasks
4. Social status determining public employment
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2
and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
79.
Which of the following features of bureaucracy can be identified with Marx?
1. It is a particular closed society within the State
2. It is an integral part of the exploitative social system
3. It is an administrative body of appointed officials
4. What fetishism of commodities is to economics, bureaucracy is to politics
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and
4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and3
80.
While conceiving an organisation chiefly as a designing process which one of the
following writers felt that "lack of design is illogical, cruel, wasteful and
inefficient' ?
(a) Luther Gulick
(b) Lyndall Urwick
(c) Henri Fayol
(d) James Mooney
81.
Chris Argyris suggests the T group technique for improving the personal
effectiveness of employees. Which one of the following is not part of this type
of sensitivity training ?
(a) Individual employees have to
expose their behaviour and they give, receive and get feedback (b) It provides
possibilities to learn the nature of effective group functioning
(c) Subordinates feel happier under conditions of directive leadership
(d) Psychological success, self-esteem and inter-personal competence can be
increased
82.
The code of conduct was maintained for group solidarity and informal pressure
was used to set right the erring members of the group during the Hawthorne
experiments. It did not include one being a
(a) rate-buster (b)
'squealer'
(c) 'chiseler' (d) 'recluse'
83.
Which one of the following approaches emphasized inter- group relationships in
addition to the formal structure ?
(a) Historical approach
(b) Philosophical approach
(c) Legal approach
(d) Behavioral approach
84.
Which one of the following statements about the systems approach to organization
is NOT correct ?
(a) It is derived from one general
systems theory
(b) It studies the organisation as a whole in relation to its environment
(c) It leads to certain fundamental principles of organisation
(d) It views the organization and its environment as interdependent for inputs
and resources
85.
Which one of the following methods can an administrator adopt in a crisis
situation ?
(a) Acting within his jurisdiction of
authority .
(b) Adopting the gangplank after informing his immediate superior
(c) Seeking the advice of his subordinates
(d) Obtaining orders of the higher ups through proper channel
86.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
1. Authority.................... It is accepted as legitimate
2. Power....................... Carrying out one's will despite resistance
3. Control...................... Ability to guide
4. Discretion.................. Choosing among alternatives causes of action
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and
4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) l and3
87.
Which of the following factors could place limitations on .the authority of a
superior ?
1. Group behaviour
2. Social relationships
3. Organisational norms
4. Bonafide instructions
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1
and 2
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
88.
Which of the following have undermined the importance of Principle of Unity of
Command in recent years ?
1. Growing size and complexity of government
2. Increasing number and influence of civil servants
3. Manning of government positions by experts
4. Increasing number and influence of boards, commissions and auxiliary agencies
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
89. The
statement, "Co-ordination is the olderly arrangement of group efforts, to
provide unity of action in the pursuit of a common purpose" is attributed to
(a) Willoughby
(b) Urwick
(c) Mooney
(d) White
90.
When the delegation goes by a climate of understanding between the superior and
subordinate, it is known as
(a) general delegation (b)
specific delegation
(c) formal delegation (d) informal delegation
91. The
chief reason for delegation of authority from headquarter to field offices is
to
(a) inculcate skill in the latter
(b) facilitate local division-making
(c) decongest the headquarter
(d) control the field office
92.
Which one of the following is a feature of the jobcentre supervisor, according
to Likert ?
(a) He experts little pressure on the
subordinates
(b) He exercises general supervision
(c) He exerts heavy pressure to get the work done
(d) He motivates subordinates to achieve high performance goals
93.
Which one of the following is NOT true of line activity ?
(a) It has operational abilities
(b) It stands for thought and facilitation
(c) It decides the organisational goals
(d) It has authority
94.
According to Simon and March, which of the following are i the
limitations of the classical theory ?
1. Improper motivational assumptions
2. Little attention given to the role of cognition in task identification and
classification
3. Little importance given to programme evaluation
4. Lack of sophistication in the theory
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1
and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
95.
Power to take decisions, communicating them to the subordinates for
implementation and thus influencing behaviour pattern in an organisation is
(a) Responsibility
(b) Hierarchy
(c) Authority
(d) Unity of command
96. Mc
Gregor's theory 'Y' emphasizes which of the following elements for an effective
and successful organisation ?
1. Acceptance by management of "hierarchy of human needs" concept and making
room for its fulfillment in the work organisation.
2. Enlargement of job
3. Decentralization of authority
4. Practice of MBO
(a) 1 alone (b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
97.
Which of the following are the functions of the leader under human relations
theory ?
1. To facilitate co-operative goal attainment among followers
2. To provide opportunities for their personal growth and development
3. To set up and enforce performance criteria to meet organisational goals
4. To fulfill needs of the organisation
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
98.
Which of the following are the phases in the decision making processes as
conceptualized by Herbert A. Simon ?
1. Intelligence 2. Design
3. Choice 4. Implementation
(a) l and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
99.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer :
List I List II
A. Immaturity-Maturity Theory 1. D. Mc Gregor
B. Motivation-Hygiene Theory 2. Chris Argyris
C. Human Group 3. F. Herzberg
D. Theory X 4. George C. Homans
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b)
1 3 4 1
(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 3 2 4 1
100.
Which of the following are the assumptions in Theory 'X'?
1. Human beings have an inherent dislike of work
2. Because of human dislike of work, people must be punished
3. Human beings are committed to objectives
4. Human beings avoid responsibility
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and
3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
101.
Which one of the following is NOT a feature of Barnard's theory of formal
organization ?
(a) Common purpose
(b) Willingness to co-operate
(c) General incentives
(d) Communication
102.
Valence Expectancy theory, an alternative theory of motivation, was proposed by
(a) Chris Argyris
(b) Victor H. Vroom
(c) A. H. Maslow
(d) Mc Gregor
103.
Consider the following statements regarding Achievement - oriented leadership:
The leader
1. does not allow participation by subordinates
2. shows a genuine human concern for subordinates
3. sets challenging goals for subordinates
4. asks for and uses suggestions from subordinates
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 3 and 4 are correct (d) 2 and 4 are correct
104.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Masterman Committee 1. Recruitment
B. Assheton Committee 2. Political Activities
C. Satish Chandra Committee 3. Training
D. Fulton Committee 4. Professionalism
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2
3 1 4
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 2 4 1
105.
In India, rules governing conditions of service should NOT be made in violation
of
(a) Articles 14, 15, 16 and 311 of
the Constitution
(b) Articles 14, 310 and 311 of the Constitution
(c) Articles 15, 16, 310 and 311 of the Constitution
(d) Articles 14, 15, 16, 310 and 311 of the Constitution
106.
Which one of the following is NOT an objective of Whitley Councils ?
(a) Ventilation of grievances through
discussions
(b) Providing a forum for securing co-operation between State and civil servants
(c) Proposing legislation on issues relating to civil servants vis- a-vis their
employment
(d) Hearing petitions filed by individual civil servants
107.
A new All India service can be created by
(a) an amendment of the Constitution
(b) an executive order
(c) a resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(d) a statute
108.
The mid -career Advance Professional Programme is Public Administration
popularly known as APPP A for civil servants is organised by.
(a) HCM Rajasthan State Institute of
Public Administration, Jaipur
(b) Administrative Staff College of India, Hyderabad
(c) Indian Institute of Public Administration, New Delhi
(d) Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration, Mussorie
109.
Which one of the following countries does NOT have a Civil Service Commission
charged with the responsibility for recruitment to the higher civil service ?
(a) Canada
(b) U.S.A
(c) Britain
(d) France
110.
The first Chairman of Administrative Reforms Commission was
(a) Shri K. Hanurilanthaiah
(b) Gulzari Lal Nanda
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) V. T. Krishnamachari
111.
The political rights available to a civil servant in India do NOT prohibit
him/her from
(a) expressing a political view
(b) contributing financially to a political party
(c) subscribing to a political movement
(d) Voting at national and state elections
112.
Consider the following Reports :
1. Paul H. Appleby Report I.
2. A. D. Gorwale Report
3. Santhanam Committee's Report
4. Administrative Reforms Commission's Report
The correct chronological sequence of these reports
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3 (b) 2, 1,
3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 4, 3
113.
The Fifth Pay Commission of the Central Government had recommended
(a) retention of the existing system
of classification of services/posts
(b) modification of the classification into Class I, class II, Class III and
Class IV
(c) giving the existing classification into Group A, B, C, D "a decent burial "
as it served no practical purpose
(d) introduction of the American system of position classification
114.
Consider the following statements :
A budget presented in terms of functions, programmes and activities of the
government is known
as
1. line items budgeting 2. programme budgeting 3.
performance budgeting
Of these statements
(a) 1 alone is correct (b)
1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
115.
Consider the following statements :
In India, the Comptroller and Auditor General has to
1. audit government expenditure
2. make financial policy
3. sanction grants to various departments
4. see that public expenditure are in conformity with the government rules
Of these statements
(a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1 and 4 are correct
116.
Which of the following is NOT true of Audit in India ?
(a) It is a Constitutional obligation
(b) It looks into the question of merits of expenditure
(c) It investigates into the impropriety, wastefulness or extravagance of
expenditure
(d) It is governed by an executive order
117.
When an advance grant is made by Parliament, pending the regular passage of the
budget it is called
(a) vote on credit
(b) token grant .
(c) vote on account
(d) supplementary grant
118.
What is the correct sequence of the stages of the enactment of the budget in
India ?
(a) Passing of finance bill,
appropriation bill, voting of demand for grants, general discussion
(b) General discussion, appropriation bill, voting of demands of grants, finance
bill
(c) General discussion, voting of demands for grants, appropriation bill,
finance bill
(d) Finance bill, voting of demands for grants, general discussion,
appropriation bill
119.
Consider the following statements :
The Finance Ministry is given tremendous control over the estimates of other
Ministries because
1. usually a Cabinet Minister is in charge of it
2. it is not a spending Ministry
3. it is responsible for the conduct of all the financial transactions of the
Government as a whole
4. no other ministry can spend without its sanction
Of these statements
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b)
2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4arecorrect (d) 1, 2 and 4arecorrect
120.
'Performance Budgeting' was introduced in India, on the recommendations of
(a) Gorwala Report
(b) Sanathanam Committee
(c) Administrative Reforms Commission
(d) Paul H. Appleby Report