Go through the Questions below. lines in white font questions and those in green are answers. Enjoy!!
1.What is the correct order for the OSI model?
P=Presentation, S=Session, D=Datalink, Ph=Physical, T=Transport, A= Application, N=Network
A. P S A PH D N T
B. A P S T N D PH
C. PH D N T A S P
D. P S A T N D PH
Answer B. It is crucial you not only memorize this and know what each layer does.
2. What is encapsulation?
A. Putting the header on an incoming frame
B. Putting a header on an incoming segment
C. Putting a header on an outgoing frame
D. Putting a header on an outgoing bit
Answer C. This also includes trailers and can be put on segments, packets, and frames.
3. Which layer is most concerned with user applications?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Network
D. Physical
Answer A.
4. Which of the following is de-encapsulation?
A. Stripping the header from a frame
B. Putting a header on a segment
C. Putting a header on a frame
D. Stripping a frame from a link
Answer A. This also includes trailers as in question 2.
5. What layer converts data into segments?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Transport
D. Physical
Answer C.
6. What layer converts data into Packets?
A. Network
B. Application
C. Physical
D. Data Link
Answer A.
7. What layer converts data into Frames?
A. Application
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport
Answer C.
8. What layer converts data into bits?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Data Link
D. Physical
Answer D. All of the layers need to convert data into something that they can pass down to the next level, with the exception of the Application layer which hands data to the Presentation layer. The Presentation layer encrypts, and compresses before sending it to the Session layer for it's first conversion.
9. Which layer is most concerned with getting data from the beginning to the final destination?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session
D. Transport
Answer D. The transport layer is most concerned with reliable transportation from one end to the other.
10. Which of the following is not a part of the Session layer?
A. Establishing a session
B. Ensuring error free segments
C. Ending a session
D. Keeping the sender and receiver from sending a message at the same time
Answer B. That is the job of the Transport layer.
11. Which of the following is not a job for the presentation layer? Choose 2
A. Data representation
B. Compression
C. Dialog management
D. Transmission
E. Encryption
Answer C D. C is handled by the session layer, and D is handled by the Transport layer
12. What does Peer to Peer communication involve?
A. Each layer communication with the layer below it
B. Each layer communication with layer above it
C. Each layer communicating with adjacent layer in another system
D. Each layer communication with it's corresponding layer in another system
Answer D. Answer C sounds correct also, but adjacent and corresponding are two different things. The session layer can only communicate with the session layer in another system for example.
13. Why does the industry use a layered model? Choose all correct
A. When you enhance one layer it doesn't affect the other layers
B. Design and development can be made in a modular fashion
C. Network operations can be simplified
D. Troubleshooting can be simplified.
Answer A B C D.
14. Which two of the following are not from the physical layer?
A. SDLC
B. V.35
C. HSSI
D. ISDN
E. RS-232
Answer A D. SDLC and ISDN are WAN protocols that function at the data link layer
15. Which two answers are functions of the OSI model"s network layer?
A. Sequencing of frames
B. Path determination
C. Packet switching
D. Packet sequencing
Answer B C. Sequencing is done at the data link layer. D is fictional.
16. What is an example of a MAC address?
A. Az32:6362:2434
B. Sj:2817:8288
C. GGG:354:665
D. A625:cbdf:6525
Answer D. The address is a 48 bit address which requires 12 Hex digits. A hex digit can't be past the letter F. Hex stands for 16. 1-9 and A-F make up numbers that are valid.
17. Which of the following is not part of the data link layer?
A. Transports data across the physical link
B. Performs physical addressing
C. Performs flow control
D. Determines network topology
E. Terminates a session
Answer E. This is part of the session layer
18. Which of the following are data link protocols?
A. HDLC
B. FTP
C. SQL
D. ISDN
E. Token Ring
Answer A D E. FTP is an application and SQL is a session layer protocol.
19. Of the following address AA77:3827:EF54, which of the following is the vendor portion?
A. AA7738
B. 27EF54
C. AA77
D. EF54
Answer A. The vendor code is how you can tell who made the card. The last 6 digits are the physical address.
20. Which of the following are examples of layer 3 addressing?
A. 165.33.4.34
B. AA77:3827:EF54
C. HHHH:hg:7654
D. 76
Answer A B. The first is a TCPIP address and the second is an IPX address
21. What is considered Layer 3 addressing?
A. Data Link Layer
B. Network Layer
C. Application Layer
D. None of these
Answer B. Physical is Layer 1, then data link, and then Network. This is the same layer that routers are on.
22. What layer are Bridges on?
A. Data Link
B. Physical
C. Application
D. Transport
Answer A. Bridges segment networks but are not able to determine addresses like the network layer does.
23. Repeaters are on what layer?
A. Transport
B. Session
C. Physical
D. Application
Answer C. All repeaters can do is boost a signal. An active hub is a good example of a repeater. A switching hub is a good example of layer 3 addressing, since switches go by network addresses and IPX addresses rather than just boost signals. Bridges can only read mac addresses, and not the full IPX or TCPIP addresses.
24. Which of the following are considered routing protocols?
A. OSPF
B. IP
C. IPX
D. EIGRP
E. Token Ring
Answer A D. Answers B and C are routed protocols, whereas A and D are the protocols that do the routing. This is easily confused. You can remember it by thinking that the routing protocols that haul the routed protocols are like a tug ship pulling a barge. The barge is full of data.
25. Which two of the following are considered connection oriented communication?
A. Setup and maintenance procedures are performed to ensure message delievery
B. A physical circuit exists between two communicating devices
C. It is a best effort type of communication
D. A virtual connection exists between the two
Answer A D. B is not a necessity, and C is not accurate. TCP is connection oriented and UDP is not.
26. Which of the following are not WAN protocols? Choose 2
A. Frame Relay
B. ATM
C. Ethernet
D. FDDI
E. ISDN
Answer C D. Ethernet and FDDI are LAN protocols.
27. Which of the following will allow you to view NVRAM's contents?
A. show configuration
B. show protocols
C. show version
D. show running-config
E. show startup-config
Answer A E. These show the backup configuration stored in NVRAM. The other anwsers allow youto view RAM.
28. Which of the following contains the OS image?
A. Flash
B. NVRAM
C. RAM
D. Interfaces
Answer A. ROM will be used if Flash is unavailable. NVRAM is the backup configuration, and RAM is the active configuration
29. Which of the following indicates the router is in privilege mode?
A. Router#
B. Router>
C. Router-
D. Router*
Answer A. Answer B shows the router in user mode.
30. What does "show cdp neighbors" not show? Neighbors_________
A. device id
B. hardware platform
C. ios version
D. port type and number
Answer C.
31. Which of the following will show you the clock?
A. cl?
B. Cl ?
C. Clock?
D. Clock ?
Answer D. By typing this the router will finish the command and show the clock.
32. CDP operates at which layer?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Data link
D. Physical
Answer C. CDP allows a network device to exchange frames with other directly connected networked devices.
33. Which command does not show two devices are not routing packets between them successfully?
A. ping
B. show interface
C. trace
D. telnet
Answer A C D. With these commands you can tell whether or not you have communication. Show interface just verifies there is a connection
34. What keystrokes shows the possible commands in privilege mode?
A. help
B. h
C. ctrl+h
D. ?
Answer D. Answers A and B will give a brief description when typed, and C is not valid.
35. Which two items contain versions of the router's configuration file?
A. flash
B. nvram
C. ram
D. rom
Answer B C. A and D contain the OS.
36. Which of the following commands will allow youto review the contents of RAM?
A. show configuration
B. show protocols
C. show version
D. show running-config
E. show startup-config
Answer B C D. A and D allow you to see NVRAM.
37. Which of the following will allow you to add, modify, or delete commands in the startup configuration file?
A. show startup-config
B. show running-config
C. configure terminal
D. configure memory
Answer D. Answer C allows you to change items in the running configuration file
38. Which command would be used to restore a configuration file to RAM?
________TFTP running-config
A. router#copy
B. router>copy
C. router*copy
D. router^copy
Answer A. You must be in privilege mode when executing this, which is why you see the # sign.
39. Which of the following commands will display the running configuration file to a terminal?
A. show running-config
B. show router-config
C. router#show flash
D. router>show version
Answer A. It can only be shown in privilege mode.
40. If you need to copy the currently executing configuration file into NVRAM, which command would you use?
A. router#copy startup-config running-config
B. router#copy startup-config TFTP
C. router#copy running-config startup-config
D. router>copy startup-config running-config
Answer C. Answers ABC show that the router is in privilege mode which is necessary to complete this action, but only C shows the correct syntax.
41 Which of the following commands would not set a password on a Cisco router?
A. router(config)#enable secret
B. router(config-line)#password test
C. router(config)#service encryption password
D. router(config)#enable password
Answer C. This command is used to encrypt passwords in configuration files.
42. Which of the following would cause a router to boot into the initial configuration dialog after powering has cycled?
A. Someone had copied the startup configuration file in a TFTP server
B. The running configuration file was copied to the startup configuration file
C. It is the first time router has ever been turned on
D. The write erase command was executed immediately before powering down the router.
Answer C and D. These two scenarios describe what will happen when the router needs to use NVRAM to boot if it cannot find the configuration file.
43. What would cause a router to boot from ROM?
A. 0x3202
B. 0x2302
C. 0x2101
D. 0x2103
Answer C. A configuration register of 1 or 0 will cause the router to boot from ROM.
44. Where does the running config file exist?
A. NVRAM
B. ROM
C. RAM
D. Flash
Answer C. This file is erased if the router is reloaded or rebooted.
45. How do you back up a router?
A. router#copy running-config startup-configuration
B. router(config)#copy TFTP flash
C. router#copy flash TFTP
D. router#copy flash NVRAM
Answer C. You can copy the file to a TFTP server or other storage device.
46. Which of the following is not valid?
A. router>show version
B. router#show running-config
C. router#show startup-config
D. router#show RAM
Answer D.
47. Which of the following are basic router functions?
A. Packet switching
B. Packet filtering
C. Path determination
D. Rapid convergence
Answer A and C. Packets get switched once they are determined by the router where to go.
48. Which of the following is not an interior routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. IGRP
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Answer D. BGP is an exterior routing protocol designed to communicate between autonomous systems.
49. Which of the following routing protocols communicate router information by sending the state of it's links to all routers in it's domain?
A. BGP
B. RIP
C. IGRP
D. OSPF
Answer D. This is a "link state" routing protocol. RIP and IGRP are distance vector, and BGP communicates reachability between domains.
50. What is a problem caused by distance vector routing protocols?
A. Split horizon
B. Route Poison
C. Counting to infinity
D. Max hop count
E. Hold down timers
Answer C. Answers ABDE are counter measures to the counting to infinity problem caused by distance vector protocols.
51. What router command will display the routing protocol settings configured on a router?
A. show protocol
B. Show routing protocol
C. Show ip protocol
D. Show running-config
Answer C. This also displays timers, neighbors, and next update info.
52. What helps mitigate the problems with link state protocols? Choose 2
A. Minimize router resource usage.
B. Coordinate updates
C. Minimum hop counts
D. Distance vectoring
Answer A B.
53. Which router commands will enable RIP for 176.18.0.0? Choose 2
A. router rip
B. network 176.18.0.0
C. network rip
D. network rip 176.18.0.0
Answer A B. Router rip enables rip. Answer B enable the router to advertise to other routers that it is available. You must be in the global configuration prompt.
54. Which of the following is a disadvantage with the link state protocol? Choose 3
A. hold down counters
B. unsynchronized updates
C. high network bandwidth usage
D. high router resource usage
Answer B C D. As link state packets flood the network, high network bandwidth can be a problem.
55. Which of the following exist at the application layer of the TCPIP model? Choose 3
A. SMTP
B. FTP
C. ICMP
D. RIP
E. IGRP
Answer A B C. Answers D and E and routing protocols.
56. Which of the following translate Fully Qualified Domain Names into IP addresses?
A. Wins
B. DNS
C. SNMP
D. TCP
Answer B.
57. Which of the following translate netbios names?
A. Wins
B. DNS
C. SNMP
D. TCP
Answer A. Netbios names are the names of the computers specified in the identification tab in the network neighborhood properties.
58. Which of the following is not done by TCP?
A. Subnetting
B. Error checking
C. Sequencing
D. Flow control
Answer A.
59. What does UDP and TCP have in common? Choose 2
A. flow control
B. error checking
C. checksum
D. provide destination and source port numbers
Answer C D. UDP doesn't check for errors.
60. Which of the following does the network layer do? Choose 2
A. Packet switching
B. Translating
C. Path determination
D. Convert signals to bits
Answer A C.
61. Which of the following about ARP is true? Choose 2
A. It is in the application layer
B. It is in the network layer
C. It maps mac addresses to ip addresses
D. It maps ip addresses to mac addresses
Answer B D. At the same layer are RARP, ICMP, and IP. RARP does what is in answer C.
62. What protocol in the transport layer does not guarantee packet delivery?
A. TCP
B. IP
C. IPX
D. UDP
Answer D. It does a best effort delivery, but is faster than TCP.
63. Which of the following is a class A ip address?
A. 10.14.16.12
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 172.15.42.34
D. 209.123.32.212
Answer A.
64. Which of the following is a class B address?
A. 10.14.16.12
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 172.15.42.34
D. 209.123.32.212
Answer C.
65. Which of the following is a loop back address?
A. 10.14.16.12
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 172.15.42.34
D. 209.123.32.212
Answer B. This is used to test to see if IP is configured and working properly on your pc,
66. Which of the following is a non routable ip address? Choose 2
A. 10.10.0.0
B. 192.168.0.1
C. 10.14.12.12
D. 209.32.242
Answer A B. These are good ip addresses to use behind a fire wall because they will never be addresses that will be used on the internet.
67. Which of the following binary numbers represent 10.12.16.6
A. 00001010.00001100.00010000.00000110
B. 00011110.01010000.11001100.00110101
C. 01101010.11001010.01000101.01010011
D. 10001001.11010101.11111111.00000000
Answer A. D cannot be used at all because you can't have all 1's or 0's
68. What does the process of AND in do?
A. It determines the value of an ip address
B. It determines the port that TCP will use
C. It determines if two ip addresses are on the same network
D. It decides the ip address subnet
Answer C. You do this by writing out all the ip addresses in binary and match them against their subnets. After you match up the 1's and 0's you can decide if they are on the same network by seeing if all the numbers match. Check the test info page for an example.
69. Which of the following is a class C address?
A. 124.12.13.44
B. 210.24.56.76
C. 127.0.0.1
D. 10.14.12.16
Answer B. An address above 191 for the first octet shows a class C address.
70. Of the following address address 11000000.11000000.11110000.10000001, what is true? Choose 2
A. It is a class C address
B. It has a host id of 192.224.128
C. It has a host id 128
D. It is a class B address.
Answer A B
71. Which layer is responsible for providing mechanisms for multiplexing upper-layer application, session establishment, and tear-down of virtual circuits?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session
D. Transport
Answer D.
72. Which layer is responsible for coordinating communication between systems?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session
D. Physical
Answer C.
73. Which layer is responsible for negotiating data transfer syntax?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
Answer B.
74. Which of the following is a characteristic of a switch, but not of a repeater?
A. Switches forward packets based on the IPX or IP address in the frame.
B. Switches forward packets based only on the IP address in the packet.
C. Switches forward packets based on the IP address in the frame
D. Switches forward packets based on the MAC address in the frame
Answer D. Switches are network device that filters, forwards, and floods frames based on the destination address of each frame. The switch operates at the data link layer of the OSI model. Switches use layer 2 addresses to filter the network
75. How does the cut-through switching technique work?
A. The LAN switch copies the entire frame into its buffers and then looks up the destination address in its forwarding, table and determines the outgoing interface
B. The switch waits only for the header to be received before it checks the destination address and starts forwarding the packets
C. By using broadcast addresses as source addresses
D. By using a Class II repeater in a collision domain
Answer B. Packet switching approach that streams data through a switch so that the leading edge of a packet exits the switch at the output port before the packet finishes entering the input port. A device using cut-through packet switching reads, processes, and forwards packets as soon as the destination address is looked up, and the outgoing port determined. Also known as on-the-fly packet switching.
76. How do switches use store and forward?
A. The switch waits only for the header to be received before it checks the destination address and starts forwarding the packets
B. The LAN switch copies the entire frame into its buffers and then looks up the destination address in its forwarding, table and determines the outgoing interface
C. By using a class II repeater in a collision domain
D. By using broadcast addresses as source addresses
Answer B. Packet-switching technique in which frames are completely processed before being forwarded out the appropriate port. This processing includes calculating the CRC and checking the destination address. In addition, frames must be temporarily stored until network resources (such as an unused link) are available to forward the message. Contrast with cut-through packet switching.
77. Choose all of the following that are needed to support full-duplex Ethernet.
A. Multiple paths between multiple stations on a link
B. Full-duplex NIC cards
C. Loopback and collision detection disabled
D. Automatic detection of full-duplex operation by all connected stations
Answer B C. Capability for simultaneous data transmission between a sending station and a receiving station.
78. What two types of technology does 100BaseT use?
A. Switching with 53-byte cells
B. CSMA/CD
C. IEEE 802.5
D. 802.3u
Answer B D. 100-Mbps baseband Fast Ethernet specification using UTP wiring. Like the 10BaseT technology on which it is based, 100BaseT sends link pulses over the network segment when no traffic is present. However, these link pulses contain more information than those used in 10BaseT. Based on the IEEE 802.3 standard.
79. Choose all of the following that are advantages to segmenting with routers.
A. Manageability
B. Flow control
C. Explicit packet lifetime control
D. Multiple active paths
Answers A, B, C, D. All of the above is correct. A router is a Network layer device that uses one or more metrics to determine the optimal path along which network traffic should be forwarded. Routers forward packets from one network to another based on network layer information
80. Some advantages to segmenting with Bridges are_____
A. Datagram filtering
B. Manageability
C. Reliability
D. Scalability
Answers B, C, D. Bridges do not do datagram (packet) filtering. A device that connects and passes packets between two network segments that use the same communications protocol. Bridges operate at the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI reference model. In general, a bridge will filter, forward, or flood an incoming frame based on the MAC address of that frame
81. Which two of the following describe frame tagging?
A. Examines particular info about each frame
B. A unique ID placed in the header of each frame as it traverses the switch fabric
C. A user-assigned ID defined to each frame
D. The building of filter tables
Answer B, C. Frame tagging is used within VLANs to uniquely identify each frame.
82. Which of the following describes a full-duplex transmission?
A. Uses a single cable
B. Uses a point-to-point connection from the transmitter of the transmitting station to the receiver of the receiving station
C. Data transmission in both directions, but only one way at a time
D. Data transmission in only one direction
Answer B. Capability for simultaneous data transmission between a sending station and a receiving station.
83. If a frame is received at a switch and only the destination hardware address is read before the frame is forwarded, what type of switching method are you using?
A. Cut-through
B. Store-and-forward
C. Store-and-cut
D. Fragment Free
Answer A. Packet switching approach that streams data through a switch so that the leading edge of a packet exits the switch at the output port before the packet finishes entering the input port. A device using cut-through packet switching reads, processes, and forwards packets as soon as the destination address is looked up, and the outgoing port determined. Also known as on-the-fly packet switching
84. Which of the following switching types is the default for Cisco 5505s?
A. Cut-through
B. Store-and-forward
C. Store-and-cut
D. Fragment Free
Answer B. Packet-switching technique in which frames are completely processed before being forwarded out the appropriate port. This processing includes calculating the CRC and checking the destination address. In addition, frames must be temporarily stored until network resources (such as an unused link) are available to forward the message.
85. What does the Spanning-Tree Algorithm (STA) do?
A. STA is implemented by STP to prevent loops
B. Forward packets through a switch
C. Restores lost frames
D. Prevents API duplication in bridged networks
Answer A. Algorithm used by the Spanning-Tree Protocol to create a spanning tree. Sometimes abbreviated STA.
86. Which can be true regarding VLANs? (Choose all that apply)
A. They are created by location
B. They are created by function
C. They are created by group
D. They are created by department
Answer A, B, C, D. Virtual LANs are a group of devices on one or more LANs that are configured (using management software) so that they can communicate as if they were attached to the same wire, when in fact they are located on a number of different LAN segments. Because VLANs are based on logical instead of physical connections, they are extremely flexible.
87. What is the IEEE specification for Spanning Tree?
A. 802.2u
B. 802.3q
C. 802.1d
D. 802.6
Answer C. SPT is a bridge protocol that utilizes the spanning-tree algorithm, enabling a learning bridge to dynamically work around loops in a network topology by creating a spanning tree. Bridges exchange BPDU messages with other bridges to detect loops, and then remove the loops by shutting down selected bridge interfaces. Refers to both the IEEE 802.1d Spanning-Tree Protocol standard and the earlier Digital Equipment Corporation Spanning-Tree Protocol upon which it is based. The IEEE version supports bridge domains and allows the bridge to construct a loop-free topology across an extended LAN. The IEEE version is generally preferred over the Digital version. Sometimes abbreviated STP
88. Of the three switching types, which one has the lowest latency?
A. Cut-through
B. FragmentFree
C. Store-and-forward
D. None
Answer A. Cut-through packet switching streams data through a switch so that the leading edge of a packet exits the switch at the output port before the packet finishes entering the input port. A device using cut-through packet switching reads, processes, and forwards packets as soon as the destination address is looked up, and the outgoing port determined. Also known as on-the-fly packet switching. Since no error checking takes place, it has the lowest latency.
89. Of the three switching types, which one has the highest latency?
A. Cut-through
B. FragmentFree
C. Store-and-forward
D. None
Answer C. Store-and-forward packet-switching technique in which frames are completely processed before being forwarded out the appropriate port. This processing includes calculating the CRC and checking the destination address. In addition, frames must be temporarily stored until network resources (such as an unused link) are available to forward the message. Since frame size can very in length, latency will then vary.
90. What is the port number for TCP?
A. 6
B. 11
C. 17
D. 45
Answer The Network layer uses port 6h for identifying TCP as the upper layer protocol and port 17h to identify UDP as the upper layer protocol
91. User Datagram Protocol works at which layer of the DOD model?
A. Transport
B. Internet
C. Host-to-Host
D. Data Link
Answer C. User Datagram Protocol. Connectionless Host-to-host layer protocol in the TCP/IP protocol stack. UDP is a simple protocol that exchanges datagrams without acknowledgments or guaranteed delivery, requiring that error processing and retransmission be handled by other protocols. UDP is defined in RFC 768.
92. Which protocol works at the Internet layer and is responsible for making routing decisions?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. ARP
Answer C. IP works at the Internet layer. It looks at the destination network address in the packet and forwards the packet, based on routing tables and what it determines to be the best route to the destination
93. Which protocol will send a message to routers if a network outage or congestion occurs?
A. IP
B. ARP
C. ICMP
D. TCP
Answer C. Internet Control Message Protocol alerts routers if a network outage or congestion occurs so they can make different routing decision based on that information.
94. Which port numbers are used by TCP and UDP to set up sessions with other hosts?
A. 1-255
B. 256-1022
C. 1023 and above
D. 6 and 10 respectively
Answer C. In IP terminology, an upper-layer process that receives information from lower layers. Ports are numbered, and each numbered port is associated with a specific process. For example, SMTP is associated with port 25. A port number is also known as a well-known address.
95. Which of the following is true?
A. TCP is connection-orientated; UDP uses acknowledgements only
B. Both TCP and UDP are connection-oriented, but only TCP uses windowing
C. TCP is connection-oriented, but UDP is connectionless
D. TCP and UDP both have sequencing, but UDP is connectionless
Answer C. TCP is a connection-oriented, reliable protocol that uses sequencing and acknowledgments to make sure packets are delivered properly. UDP is connectionless, unreliable, and doesn't use sequencing or acknowledgements
96. Which protocol is used to manage and monitor the network?
A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. IP
Answer C. Simple Network Management Protocol is a network management protocol used almost exclusively in TCP/IP networks. SNMP provides a means to monitor and control network devices, and to manage configurations, statistics collection, performance, and security
97. Which frame type use DSAPs and SSAPs to identify the upper-layer protocol?
A. 802.3
B. 802.5
C. 802.2
D. Ethernet_II
Answer C. 802.2 frame type is really an 802.3 frame type with LLC header information
98. Ping uses which Internet layer protocol (besides IP)?
A. ARP
B. RARP
C. DCMP
D. ICMP
Answer D. packet internet groper. ICMP echo message and its reply. Often used in IP networks to test the reachability of a network device
99. Which protocol sends redirects back to an originating router?
A. ARP
B. RARP
C. ICMP
D. BootP
Answer C. Internet Control Message Protocol. Network layer Internet protocol that reports errors and provides other information relevant to IP packet processing. Documented in RFC 792
100. You have a network ID of 172.16.0.0 and you need to divide it into multiple subnets. You need 600 host IDs for each subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign that will allow for growth?
A. 255.255.224.0
B. 255.255.240.0
C. 255.255.248.0
D. 255.255.252.0
Answer D.
101. You have a network ID of 172.16.0.0 with eight subnets. You need to allow for the largest possible number of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign?
A. 255.255.224.0
B. 255.255.240.0
C. 255.255.248.0
D. 255.255.252.0
Answer B. 224.0: 11100000.00000000: 224 gives us three bits, or six subnets, each with 8190 hosts.240.0: 11110000.00000000: 240 gives us four bits, or 14 subnets, each with 4094 hosts.248.0: 11111000.00000000: 248 gives us five bits, or 30 subnets, each with 2046 hosts.252.0: 11111100.00000000: 252 gives us six bits, or 62 subnets, each with 1022 hosts.By using only eight subnets, we can use 240.0 as a mask, giving us 14 subnets, each with 4094 hosts.
102. You have a Class A network address with 60 subnets. You need to add 40 new subnets in the next two years, but still allow for the largest possible number of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign?
A. 255.240.0.0
B. 255.248.0.0
C. 255.252.0.0
D. 255.254.0.0
Answer D. 240.0.0: 11110000.00000000.00000000: 240 gives us four bits, or 14 subnets, each with 1,048,574 hosts.248.0.0: 11111000.00000000.00000000: 248 gives us five bits, or 30 subnets, each with 524,286 hosts.252.0.0: 11111100.00000000.00000000: 252 gives us six bits, or 62 subnets, each with 262,142 hosts.254.0.0: 11111110.00000000.00000000: 254 gives us seven bits, or 126 subnets, each with 131,070 hosts. Only mask 254.0.0 gives us the amount of subnets we need to allow for maximum growth.
103. You have a Class C network address of 192.168.19.0 with four subnets. You need the largest possible number of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign?
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
Answer B. 192: 11000000: 192 gives us 2 bits, or 2 subnets, each with 62 hosts.224: 11100000: 224 gives us three bits, or six subnets, each with 30 hosts.240: 11110000: 240 gives us four bits, or 14 subnets, each with 14 hosts.248: 11111000: 248 gives us five bits, or 30 subnets, each with six hosts.Only mask 224 gives us more than four subnets with the largest amount of hosts
104. You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. How many network IDs must you allow for when you define the subnet mask for the network?
A. One for each subnet
B. One for each host ID
C. One for each router interface
D. One for each WAN connection
Answer A D. Each host on the network must have a unique IP address. However, you are required to have only one network ID per network. Each set of hosts must share a common network ID, as well as connections between networks, which are the WAN connections.
105. You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. Which two factors must you consider when you define the subnet mask for the network?
A. The number of subnets on the network
B. The number of host IDs on each subnet
C. The volume of network traffic on each subnet
D. The location of DNS servers
E. The location of default gateways
Answer A, B. When deciding on an IP scheme, you need to understand the amount of subnets and the amount of hosts per subnet.
106. You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. How many host IDs must you allow for when you define the subnet mask for the network?
A. One for each subnet
B. One for each router interface
C. One for each WAN connection
D. One for each network adapter installed on each host
Answer B D. Host ID are not just PC's, MAC's and Unix stations. Anything that has an interface is host or network device.
107. You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your class of address, subnet address, and broadcast address?
A. Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127.
B. Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.255
C. Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast address 172.16.255.255
D. Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
Answer D. Class B, Subnet 13, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127. The valid range for hosts is 172.16.13.1 to 172.16.13.126.
108. If you have a 22-bit subnet mask, how many subnets and how many hosts do you have?
A. 8190 subnets, 4096 hosts
B. 4,194,302 subnets, 2 hosts
C. 2,096,138 subnets 6 hosts
D. 16,384 subnets, 2046 hosts
Answer B. A 22-bit subnet mask would be 255.255.255.252. On the Cisco test, they do not count the default mask. The only class of address that could take a 22-bit mask is a class A. Start with 255 and add 22 bits. This gives you two bits for the hosts, or 2 hosts per subnet.
