1. Which of the following is not a method that routers learn routes?
a) Static routing
b) Default routing
c) Dynamic routing
d) Hosts routing
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2. Which of the following is the correct for adding a static route?
a) ip route network mask address/interface [distance]
b) ip route mask network address/interface [distance]
c) ip route address/interface network mask [distance]
d) ip route address/interface mask network [distance]
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3. What is the default administrative distance for RIP learned networks?
a) 80
b) 100
c) 120
d) 140
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4. Which of the following commands will show the route table?
a) sh routes
b) sho route
c) show routing
d) sh ip route
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5. When exiting the config t prompt, which keys are used to apply your changes?
a) alt z
b) control z
c) alt s
d) control s
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6. Which of the following is the correct for entering a default route command with an interface ip address of 172.16.20.1?
a) ip routes 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.20.1
b) ip route 1.1.1.1 1.1.1.1 172.16.20.1
c) ip route 172.16.20.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
d) ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.20.1
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7. If you don't want to use static routes on all your routers, you can use which command to forward unknown address packets out a specific port?
a) ip classless
b) ip unknown
c) route all unknown
d) ip route ?
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8. The only job of routing protocols is to maintain routing tables.
a) True
b) False
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9. Which of the following is a routed protocol?
a) RIP
b) NLSP
c) IP
d) EIGRP
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10. Which of the following is not an interior routing protocol?
a) RIP
b) BGP
c) IGRP
d) OSPF
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11. How often are distance vector routing protocols updated?
a) Every 10 seconds
b) Every 120 seconds
c) Every 20 seconds
d) Every 30 to 90 seconds
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12. Distance vector routing protocols use what as a metric.
a) Hop count
b) Up time
c) Subnet
d) Interface speed
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13. Which of the following is not used to prevent routing loops?
a) Counting to infinity
b) Split Horizon
c) Keep alives
d) Hold downs
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14. Link state routing protocols converge slower than distance vector routing protocols.
a) True
b) False
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15. In RIP the routing update timer is set to ______ seconds. By default.
a) 10
b) 30
c) 50
d) 70
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16. The amount of time that must expire before a route becomes invalid. In RIP
a) 60 seconds
b) 100 seconds
c) 50 seconds
d) 90 seconds
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17. The term that describes the amount of time before a route is removed from the routing table. In RIP.
a) Route flush timer
b) Route invalid timer
c) Bad route timer
d) No reply timer
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18. What is the hop count limit in RIP?
a) 5 Hops
b) 10 Hops
c) 15 Hops
d) 20 Hops
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19. What is the hop count limit in IGRP?
a) 15 Hops
b) 80 Hops
c) 50 Hops
d) 255 Hops
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20. What is the default distance for an EIGRP route?
a) 5
b) 20
c) 90
d) 140
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21. What is the maximum cost allowable in OSPF?
a) 65,535
b) 10,526
c) 20,739
d) 35,924
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22. EIGRP sends periodic updates.
a) True
b) False
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23. Which of the following commands is correct for adding RIP to a router?
a) (config)#rip router
(config-rip)#network [network number]
b) (config)#rip
(config-rip)#network [network number]
c) (config)#router rip
(config-router)#network [network number]
d) (config)#router rip
(config-router)# [network number] network
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24. You can configure RIP to run over a WAN interface.
a) True
b) False
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25. How would you configure RIP on your local network, which is connected to the Internet?
a) The passive option
b) The no broadcast option
c) The silent option
d) The no update option
scound exam
1. When a signal is transmitted to a hub, how is it handled?
a) The signal is repeated to a specific port
b) The signal is repeated to all segments
c) The signal is repeated to 5 specific ports
d) The signal is repeated to the ports except FDDI ports
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2. When a signal is transmitted to bridge, how is it handled?
a) The signal is repeated to all segments
b) The signal is repeated to the ports except FDDI ports
c) The signal is repeated to 5 specific ports
d) The signal is repeated to a specific port
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3. When a signal is transmitted to a switch, how is it handled?
a) The signal is repeated to a specific port
b) The signal is repeated to the ports except FDDI ports
c) The signal is repeated to 5 specific ports
d) The signal is repeated to all ports
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4. When a signal is transmitted to a router, how is it handled?
a) The signal is repeated to the ports except FDDI ports
b) The signal is repeated to a specific port
c) The signal is repeated to all ports
d) The signal is repeated to all ports
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5. Which of the follow is not a benefit of using a layered approach to design.
a) It clarifies a general function, rather than a specific on how to do something
b) It allows for workstations to connect to the network faster
c) It eases troubleshooting
d) It uses standard interfaces the ease interoperability
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6. The difference between the logical movement of data and physical movement of data is?
a) Physical movement is the movement of data through the OSI layers. Logical movement is the movement through the network media.
b) Physical movement is the movement of data through the network media. Logical movement is the movement through the OSI layers.
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7. Which of the following groups are considered the upper layers in the OSI model?
a) Application and presentation
b) Application, presentation and session
c) Transport and network
d) Data link and physical
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8. Which of the following are considered the middle layers of the OSI?
a) Session and transport
b) Presentation and session
c) Transport and network
d) Network and data link
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9. Which of the following does not happen at the application layer?
a) File and printing services
b) Messaging and databases services
c) Application services
d) Data compression
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10. Which of the following does not happen on the presentation layer?
a) Data encryption
b) Data compression
c) Dialog control
d) Data translation
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11. Which layer of the OSI model does EDI (Electronic data interchange) occur?
a) Application
b) Presentation
c) Session
d) Transport
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12. Which layer of the OSI model does ASN.1 (abstract syntax notation 1) perform it's functions?
a) Application
b) Presentation
c) Session
d) Transport
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13. Which level of the OSI model does full duplex mode of transmission get decided?
a) Application
b) Presentation
c) Session
d) Transport
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14. Which layer of th OSI model does NFS protocol reside?
a) Application
b) Presentation
c) Session
d) Transport
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15. Which layer of the OSI model does X window reside?
a) Applications
b) Presentation
c) Session
d) Transport
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16. Protocols involved in connection oriented data transport need the ensure that all of the following occur except ________.
a) That different applications can coexist within the OSI model.
b) Segments that are delivered are acknowledged.
c) Segments not acknowledged are retransmitted
d) Segments are sequenced backed into the proper order
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17. Which of the following is the correct order of establishing a connection oriented session?
a) Negotiate connection, synchronize, synchronize, acknowledge (connection established)
b) Synchronize, acknowledge, synchronize, negotiate connection, (connection established)
c) Synchronize, negotiate connection, synchronize, acknowledge (connection established)
d) Synchronize, negotiate connection, acknowledge connection, synchronize (connection established)
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18. What is 1 way to increase throughput without adding hardware?
a) Installing a faster NIC
b) Increasing widow size
c) Upgrading software
d) Using RAM a doubler
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19. What is the difference between ethernet_II and 802.3 ethernet frames?
a) Nothing, except 802.3 frame types are newer
b) Ethernet_II frames are 12 bytes larger.
c) Ethernet_II frames have DSAP and SSAP fields
d) 802.2 frames have DSAP and SSAP fields.
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20. Which of the following WAN encapsulations do not exist on the data link layer?
a) HDLC, ISDN
b) x.21, V.24
c) LAPB, ISDN
d) SDLC, PPP
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21. Which of the following are not a physical layer standard?
a) V.24, V.35
b) X.21, G.703
c) EIA-530, HSSI
d) X.25, Frame Relay
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22. Which of the following is the correct order of data encapsulation?
a) Data is converted to segments segments to packets or datagrams. User information to data. Packets or datagrams to frames. Frames to bits.
b) User information is converted to data. Segments to packets or datagrams. Data to segments. Packets or datagrams to frames. Frames to bits.
c) User information is converted to data. Data to segments. Segments to packets or datagrams. Packets or datagrams to frames. Frames to bits.
d) Bits to frames. Frames to packets or datagrams. Packets or datagrams to segments. Segments to data. Data to user information.
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23. 10Base2 segments are up to 200 meters in length.
a) True
b) False
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24. 10Base5 segments are up to 500 meters in length.
a) True
b) False
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25. 10BaseT/UTP category 6 cabling specifies 120Mbps maximum in speed.
a) True
b) False
thard exam
1. Where do routers look to find the destination address?
a) Packet header
b) Frame header
c) SSAP field
d) DSAP field
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2. When an ARP request is destined for a remote network the router forwards the ARP request.
a) True
b) False
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3. How many classes of IP addresses are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
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4. When subnetting a network you'll need to determine ________.
a) The location of resources.
b) The types of servers
c) The number of addresses necessary
d) The topology of the network
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5. An IP address is divided into 2 sections. They are _____ and ______.
a) Class and Network address
b) TCP and IP address
c) Class and Host address
d) Network and Host address
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6. If a workstations subnet mask is incorrect, how will this effect the router?
a) The router will assume that the workstation is on a different network.
b) The router will adjust the the workstations subnet to function correctly
c) The router will pass traffic as normal allowing the workstation communicate
d) The router will reload and fix the problem
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7. Does the default subnet mask bits count against the bits used for subnet mask?
a) Yes
b) No
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8. With the IP address 10.1.1.1/16 what does this mean to routers?
a) IP address of 10.1.1.1 with a subnet mask of 16.0.0.0
b) IP address of 10.1.1.1 with a subnet mask of 0.0.0.16
c) IP address of 10.1.1.1 with a subnet mask of 0.0.255.255
d) IP address of 10.1.1.1 with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0
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9. Routers can be configured by all of the following except ________.
a) TFTP server
b) Virtual Terminals
c) Network management stations
d) FTP server
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10. NVRAM contains ______.
a) Bootstrap startup program
b) Startup configuration
c) Re-programmable ROM
d) Packet buffering
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11. After the POSTs are finished, which order does the router search for a valid IOS image?
a) Flash, TFTP, ROM
b) ROM, Flash, TFTP
c) TFTP, Flash, ROM
d) ROM, TFTP, Flash
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12. After the IOS is loaded, which order is the configuration file located?
a) NVRAM, Console, TFTP server
b) Console, NVRAM, TFTP server
c) NVRAM, TFTP server, Console
d) TFTP server, console, NVRAM
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13. Config mem does which of the following in version 10.3 and earlier?
a) It will copy the running-config to the startup-config
b) It will copy the startup-config to the running-config
c) It allows you to configure the the information stored in memory
d) I allows you to run the configuration in memory
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14. To see the available commands you can type _______.
a) help
b) display
c) options
d) ?
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15. To move backward one word you can type ____.
a) CTRL+A
b) ESC+B
c) ESC+F
d) CTRL+F
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16. To display the configuration held in NVRAM you would type ______.
a) sho NVRAM
b) dsplnerrs
c) dsp config
d) sho star
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17. wr term is the same as _______ in version 10.3 or earlier.
a) sho run
b) wr mem
c) wr erase
d) wr nvram
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18. sho conf is the same as _______ in version 10.3 and earlier.
a) sho run
b) sho int
c) sho cource
d) sho startup-config
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19. The enable password has precedence over the secret password.
a) True
b) False
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20. Line vty 0 4 refers to _____.
a) Console sessions
b) The 1st 5 interfaces on the router
c) Telent sessions
d) The auxiliary port
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21. Banner motd # will let you configure message of the day.
a) True
b) False
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22. Switch and VIP interfaces are numbered port/slot.
a) True
b) False
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23. S0 refers to what?
a) Slot 0
b) Serial 0
c) System 0
d) Session 0
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24. clock rate command is applied to which interface type?
a) S0
b) WAN connections
c) DTE
d) DCE
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25. To view if an interface has DTE/DCE applied to it, you would type _______.
a) sho controller ser #
b) sho int
c) sho run
d) sho source
fouth exam
1. What does CSMA/CD stand for?
a) Computer Service Made Accounts with Certified Domains
b) Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection
c) Carrier Sent Multiple Accesses with CRC Detection
d) Certified Sniffer Master Account with Channel Detections
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2. Which layer of the OSI model does 802.3 reside?
a) Physical
b) Data Link
c) Network
d) Transport
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3. Which of the following is a drawback to installing FDDI media?
a) FDDI uses a token passing media access
b) FDDI provides both physical and logical rings
c) FDDI permits more the 1 token on the ring at a time.
d) High latency when converting from FDDI to Ethernet media.
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4. IEEE 802.5 is which of the following LAN types?
a) Token Ring
b) Fast Ethernet
c) FDDI
d) Ethernet II
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5. Stations can transmit whenever they want in a 802.5 LAN.
a) True
b) False
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6. In a token ring environment the workstations connect to a hub.
a) True
b) False
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7. When a transmitting station fails, how is the token removed from the ring?
a) The token passes around the ring until it times out.
b) The station with the highest station number removes the token and generates a new one.
c) The nearest upstream neighbor of the station removes the token and generates a new one.
d) The active monitor removes the token
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8. What size cell does ATM use?
a) 23 Byte
b) 43 Byte
c) 53 Byte
d) 64 Byte
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9. Bridges can create both physical and logical network segments.
a) True
b) False
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10. A Cisco switch is really a multiport bridge that runs Cisco IOS and performs the same function as a bridge.
a) True
b) False
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11. Which layer of the OSI model does a router perform it's function?
a) Transport
b) Session
c) Network
d) Physical
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12. Routers provide all of the following except ________?
a) Manageability
b) Increased functionality
c) Multiple active paths
d) Reduced latency
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13. What is the size of a runt frame?
a) Less than 16 bytes
b) Less than 32 bytes
c) Less than 64 bytes
d) Less than 128 bytes
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14. What is the size of giant frame?
a) More that 512 bytes
b) More than 1024 bytes
c) More than 1518 bytes
d) More than 2048 bytes
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15. Which of the following refers to Spanning tree protocol?
a) 802.1
b) 802.1d
c) 802.2
d) 802.3
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16. The purpose of spanning tree is ______?
a) Assist in OSPF
b) Prevent routers from establishing connections sporacticly.
c) Prevent multiple route paths
d) Prevent routing loops
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17. All of the following are benefits to VLAN's except _______?
a) Simplify moves, adds and changes.
b) Reduce administrative costs
c) Better control of broadcasts
d) Proprietary management software
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18. Frame tagging occurs on which layer of the OSI model?
a) Layer 1
b) Layer 2
c) Layer 3
d) Layer 4
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19. Full duplex can be implemented on all of the following medias except ______.
a) 10BaseT
b) 100BaseT
c) 100BaseFL
d) FDDI
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20. In order to implement full duplex you must have all of the following except ______.
a) Loopback and collision detection enabled
b) Two 10 or 100Mbps paths
c) Full duplex NIC cards
d) Software drivers that support 2 simultaneous data paths
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21. Which of the following describes 100BaseT4?
a) Ethernet over fiber at 100Mbps
b) Fast ethernet over CAT 5 cabling
c) 50/125 or 62.5/125 micron cable
d) 100Mbps over CAT 3,4, or cabling
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22. All of the following are benefits of fast ethernet except ______.
a) Can't use 10 and 100Mbps together
b) Can use existing cabling and network equipment
c) Uses CSMA/CD
d) Migration is easy
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23. Repeaters may reduce 100BaseFX max distances and extend 100BaseTX distances.
a) True
b) False
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24. Class 1 repeaters are translational and can support both 100BaseX and 100BaseT4 signaling.
a) True
b) False
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25. The maximum allowable delay for a Class 1 repeater is _________.
a) 35 bit times
b) 70 bit times
c) 105 bit times
d) 140 bit times
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fifth exam
1. Class 2 repeater is transparent and only supports either 100BaseX or 100BaseT4.
a) True
b) False
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2. What is the maximum allowable delay for a class 2 repeater?
a) 92 bit times
b) 184 bit times
c) 176 bit times
d) 65 bit times
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3. The fast hub 300 is a repeater compatible with 802.3u standards for ethernet.
a) True
b) False
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4. In the DOD model what layer defines protocols for node-to-node communications?
a) Network access
b) Internet
c) Host-to-host
d) Process/application
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5. Which layer of the DOD model sets up the communication services for applications?
a) Process/application
b) Host-to-host
c) Internet
d) Network Access
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6. Which layer of the DOD model deals with the logical transmission of packets over the network?
a) Process/application
b) Host-to-host
c) Internet
d) Network access
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7. Which layer of the DOD model monitors the data exchange between the host and the network?
a) Process/application
b) Host-to-host
c) Internet
d) Network access
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8. Which layer of the DOD model do TCP and UDP perform their functions?
a) Process/application
b) Host-to-host
c) Internet
d) Network access
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9. Which layer of the DOD model does ARP, RARP and IP perform their functions?
a) Process/application
b) Host-to-host
c) Internet
d) Network access
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10. Which layer of the DOD model do telnet and FTP perform their functions?
a) Process/application
b) Host-to-host
c) Internet
d) Network access
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11. Which of the following port ranges are assigned to companies to use in their applications?
a) 0-255
b) 255-1023
c) 1023 and above
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12. Which range of port numbers are used for public use?
a) 0-255
b) 255-1023
c) 1023 and above
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13. Which port number is used for SNMP?
a) 53
b) 69
c) 161
d) 23
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14. Which port number is used for DNS?
a) 23
b) 53
c) 69
d) 21
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15. Which port numbers are used by upper layer applications to set up sessions with other hosts?
a) 0-255
b) 255-1023
c) 1023 and above
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16. Which port number is used for SMTP?
a) 21
b) 23
c) 69
d) 25
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17. Which port number is used for TFTP?
a) 21
b) 69
c) 161
d) 29
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18. UDP transfers are faster than TCP transfers.
a) True
b) False
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19. If you notice that port being used is 5136. That would indicate __________.
a) that they are using appletalk to communicate.
b) that the stations are using TFTP to communicate.
c) that both the stations have been connected for an extended period of time.
d) that both stations have had previous sessions established.
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20. Which of the following protocol are best described by these characteristics: Virtual circuit, sequenced, acknowledgments, reliable.
a) ARP
b) IP
c) TCP
d) UDP
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21. Which port does UDP use?
a) 6
b) 17
c) 12
d) 21
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22. BootP does all of the following except ___________.
a) Get the address of the nearest printer
b) Get an IP address
c) Get the IP address of the server
d) Get the file name of the file to be loaded into memory and executed on boot up.
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23. A MAC address in divided into 2 sections 1 for vendor code and the other for unique identification. How large are each of these sections?
a) 2 bytes each
b) 3 bytes each
c) 4 bytes each
d) 5 bytes each
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24. If your workstation doesn't know how to reach a destination host, what is used to find that address?
a) RARP
b) TCP
c) Ping
d) ARP
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25. How long to ARP entries last on Cisco routers?
a) 1 hour
b) 2 hours
c) 3 hours
d) 4 hours
