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1. If you see the red disc ruptured during preflight, at Least one fire bottle has been dumped into one of the engines. (T or F). False Yellow - one or both bottles discharged to the engine Red - the fire bottle has been vented overboard due to overheat 2. The emergency gear system needs hydraulic pressure for lowering. (T or F) False: lowered by gravity 3. After pulling the emergency brake handle you will not have anti skid available. (T or F) True 4. Which is the false statement concerning the ignitors? a. Ignition switch control's ignitor No.3 b. Both ignitors are duty cycle limited c. No. 6 ignitor is on during stalls, starts, airstarts Answer b is right 5. If the wing mounted boost pump fails, the centrifugal part of the engine fuel pump will supply suction feed upto ______ feet. 15.000 feet MSL 6. Max fuel imbalance for T/0 and LDG? 200# 7. How is the DC ESS BUS powered during normal / emergency operation? NORM: Parallel Bus EMERG: Battery 8. What happens when you switch the tank selector switch to the heavy tank? Select LH/RH tank (heavy rank); pump X-feed opens and tank X-feed valve stays closed. Boost pump in wing opposite tank is deenergised. 9. What is the external power requirement? 28 VDC / 800 A 10. When can the gear warning horn be silenced? A/S < 140 +/- 10 kts, either engine RPM <95% and alt <12,000 +/- 600 <MSL 11. Which of the following is not operated by the main hydraulic system? Flaps 12. With a single generator failure mission DC busses A and B will be shed. Which bus can be regained by placing the mission bus switch to EMERG? Mission bus A. 13. What is the min EPR for anti-ice? . 1.5 EPR. 14. What is the temperature range for turning on the anti-ice? -20 to 5 C 15. What do stuck slats do to the Vref? Vref + 15kts 16. What is the proper switch position of the cabin air selector for smoke and fume elimination? RAM AND DUMP 17. What is the position for the thrust reverser switch during T/O and LDG? EMERG STOW 18. In which position of the cabin air selector does the auto control rheostat not work? ram 19. What is the total oil system capacity and when is it considered to be full? 2.03 gal, 1.6 gal 20. With VOX MIC selected what does selecting 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 do? Opens 2-way radio communication 21. With auto selected the pilot and copilot will have a ______ band and the passengers will have oxygen available above _____ feet. Green 13,500' +/- 500’ 22. CLNC text (from Pensacola). What do you set in the altitude alerter? First hold down altitude (9.000') 23. How many EPR's do you have to calculate prior T/O? 2, T/O and Climb EPR 24. What is the tolerance on the arc? +/- 1 nm 25. When do you start the line up checklist? Hold short line. However if tower is busy, go ahead and make the call first. 26. What is the normal ICS setup? VOX MIC, UHF 1, ST, 1, 2, 3 27. Vref calculation: 3 people, 1700# @ IAF? 11.7+0.6+1.7=14.0…= 111 kts 28. What do you do in case of a birdstrike? Mission is over, all training stops, divert or RTB 29. What are the enroute crs limits? 3 degrees or 2 nm which ever is less 30. What does the student set in the radar altimeter for departure at Luke AFB (FE 1200')? 400' AGL 31. Calculate waveoff EPR: Luke AFB, FE 1200’. Temp +10C (use PCL)? 2, 32 Waveoff EPR 32. What is set in the radar altimeter on a precision approach? HAT 33. You are 10 am out on TACAN final and the field in sight, what is your primary concern? Continue Navigation 34. What are the T/O calls? On the peg, 60 kts, V1 (in numbers) 35. Calculate Vref: 3 people, 1100# @ IAF, stuck slats and single engine? 11.7+0,6+1.1 = 13.4 (14.0)…. 111 kts +15 kts = 126 kts 36. What do you bug on the approach in the ASI? Vref 37. Fuel calculation: Time 10+12. GS 6.8, 34 nm to point B, 1+17 from B to IAF, 4300# remaining, FF=1800. What is the fuel at IAF? 1830# 38. What is the idle RPM? 42 +/- 1% 39. Is there enough pressure to taxi back to the line if you are in AUX HYD? NO, need to be towed 40. Which pilot tube is heated with pilot heat switch on in case of dual generator failure? LH pitot tube 41. What is the nose wheel steering disengage speed? 60 kts 42. What is the max EGT at idle? 515C 43. What is the AOA readout for Vref? 18 units (amber doughnut) 44. What is the recommended max crosswind landing? 25 kts (recommended only) 45. What VOR data can be obtained with the double needle? Azimuth only 46. What are the prohibited maneuvers? Spin, Stall, Yaw, pitch. Lateral deflection (Read the books for details) 47. What is the EGT for takeoff? 718C for 5 min max 48. At start, which instruments require power? FF, Fuel capacity, Oil pressure, EPR 49.
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is the max load from SL to 30.000' on single generator ops? 0.8 (0.5 for 30K-40K) 50. When does the altitude alerter come on? 1000' prior, +/- 300 deviation 51. Where are we when the glideslope indicator is pegged on the bottom and the CDI bar is to the right on an ILS approach? High and left of course 52. When does the starter disengage? 31-35% 53. What is the max range profile? 25,000' and 0.55 IMN 54. At what height does the radar altimeter comes alive? 2.500' AGL 55. From which engine do you get unconditioned bleed air and where does it go? RH engine and it goes to the cabin |