Isn't it true that the NIV Bible deletes the blood out of the Bible in Colossians 1:14?

Well, it's not that it has been deleted and if it were considered a deletion, what Bible are you making the standard? If you are in the KJV Only camp, you may say that the KJV is the standard. But if you do so, that is nothing more than circular reasoning. Why should you make the KJV the standard if it was not the first Bible nor will it be the last? In other words, there is no basis to substantiate your claim.

Now, as for the alleged deletion, the simple fact that it was not found in one translation in no way means that this particular translation has taken away the truth of the shed blood of Christ.

The KJV reads: "In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins:"

The NIV reads: "In whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins." However, may it be noted that the parallel phrase is found in Ephesians 1:7 which reads in the NIV: "In him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins..."

We note a very similar situation that occurs around Colossians 1:2 and Ephesians 1:2. There are a number of parallels between Colossians and Ephesians, hence it is natural to expect there to be some "harmonization" of the two epistles through normal scribal activity. This is why the NIV does not have the phrase "through his blood" in Colossians 1:14. It is missing not only in the "Alexandrian text" ( a text that is hated by all KJV Only advocates), but it is also missing from the majority of Greek manuscripts, including the majority of the Byzantine tradition. How ironic, don't you think?

In any case, even a brief examination of the situation, coupled with a minimal familiarity with the facts, demonstrates plainly that there is no "conspiracy" involved in modern readings.