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FAQ # 136
QUESTION 136 : Gal.
4:6... Eph. 2:18... Eph. 4:4-6... Titus 3:5-6... Rom. 15:16, 30; 2 Cor.
1:21-22; 3:3; Gal. 3:11-14; Eph. 2:22; 3:14, 16-17; 5:17-21; Phil. 3:3;
Col. 1:6-8; 1 Thess. 1:2-10; 2 Thess. 2:13. All these are just as abundant
in Trinitarian language as the ones I wrote out above. Paul was unquestionably
a Trinitarian. Isn’t he!?
In order to define, describe, and declare
the doctrine of the Trinity, some or all of the following terminology
or meaning is REQUIRED-
Trinity, Holy Trinity, Divine Trinity,
Triune, Three-in-one, Three-of-one, "God the Son", "God
the Holy Ghost," Separate Persons, Separate Egos, Separate Individuals,
Divine Plurality, Divine Individuality, Divine Unity.
Where does Paul use ANY of the above terminology
or meaning ANYWHERE in ANY of his epistles?
NONE of this terminology, nor ANY descriptive
language anywhere in the Bible defines these concepts. Not in Paul's writings,
nor in the whole Bible!
Instead, Paul wrote that God gives prophets
(1 Cor. 12:18 &28), and Paul says Jesus is the one and the same that
gave the gift of prophecy- (Eph 4:7-11), and Paul said the Spirit is the
one who gives the gift of prophecy (1 Cor. 12:11), and yet Paul says-
"ALL THESE WORKETH THAT ONE AND THE SELFSAME PERSON" (1 Cor.
12:12).
So how is it that Paul teaches a Trinity
if this God, Jesus, and the Spirit who gives the gift of prophecy IS ONE
AND THE SELFSAME SPIRIT ACCORDING TO PAUL? WAS PAUL TRYING TO DECEIVE
US?
Why do Trinitarians not believe Paul when
he said "All these worketh that one and the selfsame Spirit"?
Do those who teach the trinity think they know something Paul did not?
Would a Trinitarian say, referring to
God, Jesus, and the Holy Ghost that- "all these worketh that one
and the selfsame Spirit"? Why then did Paul?
It is because Paul WAS NOT A TRINITARIAN,
that's why! It is because when Paul asked His Lord what His name was He
said it was Jesus, NOT "Holy Trinity"!!!
Paul asked, Act 9:5, "Who art thou,
Lord? And the Lord said, I AM JESUS whom thou persecutest: it is hard
for thee to kick against the pricks."
If Paul is a Trinitarian, as you have
accused him of being, where does Paul ANYWHERE specifically describe the
Godhead as Separate Persons?
If the Holy Ghost in the church is a Separate
Person from Jesus, why did He say His name is Jesus? Was the Holy Spirit
deceiving Paul?
Paul was a Jews Jew- Phi 3:5 "Circumcised
the eighth day, of the stock of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, an Hebrew
of the Hebrews; as touching the law, a Pharisee."
And if the godhead turned out to be a
Trinity of Separate Persons, this would have been a MONUMENTAL change
in Jewish thought and doctrine! It would have been MUCH MORE than Jesus
merely fulfilling the law, as He said. And it therefore, would have been
a MAJOR CONCERN of Paul's to communicate this doctrine clearly, and completely,
for he said-
"...I HAVE NOT SHUNNED TO DECLARE
UNTO YOU ALL THE COUNSEL OF GOD. Take heed therefore unto yourselves,
and to all the flock... For I know this, that after my departing shall
grievous wolves enter in among you, not sparing the flock. Also OF YOUR
OWN SELVES SHALL MEN ARISE, SPEAKING PERVERSE THINGS, to draw away disciples
after them. Therefore watch, and remember, that by the space of three
years I ceased not to warn every one night and day with tears. AND NOW,
BRETHREN, I COMMEND YOU TO GOD, AND TO THE WORD of his grace, which is
able to build you up, and to give you an inheritance among all them which
are sanctified” (Act 20:27-32).
Since Paul did not shun to declare unto
us ALL THE COUNSEL of God, and since the things he wrote are the commandments
of the Lord, WHERE DOES PAUL COMMAND US TO BELIEVE IN A TRINITY OF PERSONS?
Where does Paul say, as you, that those who don't believe in a Trinity
of Persons are heretics? Did Paul lie to us then in that he really DIDN'T
"declare unto us ALL the counsel of God"? Did Paul have an INCOMPLETE
understanding of the godhead that could only be revealed centuries later
by pagan philosophers?
{Source: Tom
R.}
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