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FAQ # 194
QUESTION 194
: “John 6:46 states, 'Not that
anyone has seen the Father except HE who is from God'. . . Here
is another saying he’s seen the Father. Jesus says he has seen the Father
who is invisible, who is spirit. If he is the Father this makes no sense.”
Does it?
*Angels, presumable, has seen the father, then how
comes he says no one has seen the father. Because, here, he meant that
no human has seen the father’s face; especially knowing that no man shall
see God and live (Ex 33:20). Then he indirectly says to them that he has
seen the father. Clearly hinting to them that he is not an ordinary man,
but rather, came from above. Or more precisely, God the father in flesh.
This he confessed to Phillip later on, "Have I been so long time
with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip?" (John 14:9). In
other words, he was saying, I, God the father, have been so long with
you but you didn’t have a clue, even though I hinted it.
Then the said person said, “No man has seen the Father,
men saw Jesus therefore Jesus is not the Father but the Son.” For this
answer see the next FAQ (#195).
Answer
Notes: 1. * denotes, He was distinct
from angels who are fallen and dwell in flesh, by the works that he did
and prerogatives that he holds; so he couldn’t be an angel.
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