IS MARY THE SISTER OF AARON

REBUTTALS FOR

IS MARY THE SISTER OF AARON?

Part 1

REPLIES TO THE WRITER WHO HAS ACTED AS HIS OWN WITNESS,WITNESSING;

A LAWYER,DEBATING,ARGUING;

AND FINALLY A JUDGE,GIVING A VERDICT OF HIS OWN WRITING.

NOTE.I DO NOT WISH TO WRITE A NEW LONG ARTICLE LIKE THE WRITER ,BUT RATHER CORRECTING HIS GROSS MISTAKES THAT WERE CONTAINED IN HIS WRITING.IN THIS WAY,WE CAN KNOW THE TRUTH MUCH BETTER!THE WRITER MENTIONED HERE HAS WRITTEN AN ARTICLE STATED ABOVE.THIS IS A DIRECT REPLY TO HIS FALSEHOOD.

ABSTRACT

Muhammad was confused about Jesus' mother's identity. In the Quran he erred by identifying her as Aaron's sister. When presented with this error Muhammad created an ad hoc explanation to cover his mistake. This paper "explains" why Muhammad's explanation is wrong and thereby shows that the Quranic statements remain in error.

POINT 1: BEFORE THE CASE STARTS,THIS WRITER HAS PROPOSED AND BELIEVED ALREADY THAT THE PROPHET HAS GOT CONFUSED?,ERRED?CREATED?COVER HIS MISTAKE?FINALLY ACCEPTS QURAN IS IN ERROR?

INTRODUCTION

As Islam grew in power(do you mean in numbers?), Muhammad's people(MUSLIMS) began to preach Islam throughout the Arabian peninsula. Eventually, Islamic force of arms insured that Islam was preached and established throughout the entire region.

POINT2:NOW THE AUTHOR PROPOSED THAT ISLAM IS SPREAD BY FORCE OF ARMS!PROOFS??AS FAR AS I KNOW,ALL THE VERSES IN THE QURAN COMMANDS MUSLIMS TO PREACH BY THEIR MOUTHS!

There were Arabian Christians living in a town called Najran who had heard the stories of Islam. One Quranic passage about Mary and Jesus struck them as strange, (Surah 19:27, 28). It reads:

"Carrying the child, (Jesus), she (Mary) came to her people, who said to her: "Mary, this is indeed a strange thing! Sister of Aaron, your father was never a whore-monger, nor was your mother a harlot."" [The Koran, Dawood's translation, pages 215, 216].

NOTE: My words are in parenthesis.

MY PRESENTATION OF THE ABOVE VERSES.

At length she brought The (babe) to her people, carrying him (in her arms). They said: O Mary! Truly an amazing thing hast thou brought!

NOW WHAT IS GOING ON HERE!A WOMAN HAS COME TO HER PEOPLE WITH A CHILD AFTER SOME DISAPPEARANCE ,SO WHEN SHE COME BEFORE HER PEOPLE,HER PEOPLE EXCLAIMED!

WHY?

BECAUSE,MARY EVERSINCE SHE WAS BORN,SHE HAS BEEN RAISED IN A GODLY MANNER,SHE IS NOT LIKE OTHER WOMAN.SHE HAS BEEN DEDICATED TO THE TEMPLE OF GOD.MARY HAS EVEN HAD A GUARDIAN (ZACHARIAH)TO LOOK AFTER HER.TO READ MORE ABOUT HER CHASTE,HER NOBLENESS,HER VIRTUE.READ THE QURAN ABOUT HER.

AS SUCH THE PEOPLE OF HER TOWN EXCLAIMED!

1.O sister of Aaron!

NOW, WE HAD COME TO THE TOPIC OF THE ISSUE! THE PROBLEM WITH ALL CHRISTIAN MISSIONARIES!NOT THE MUSLIMS INCLUDING THE PROPHET!

MY QUESTIONS?

1)WHY DID THE JEWS ADDRESS HER THE SECOND TIME AS "SISTER OF AARON" ,WHEN THEY ADDRESSED HER THE FIRST TIME AS MARY WHICH IS HER REAL NAME ?

BEWILDERED! DON'T WORRY,READ THE NEXT VERSE OF THE QURAN!

2.Thy father was not A man of evil,

NOW WHY DID THEY TESTIFY THAT HER FATHER WAS NOT MAN OF EVIL?WHAT IS THERE A CONNECTION BETWEEN THE SITUATION AND THEIR STATEMENT?

BEWILDERED AGAIN?THEN READ THE NEXT VERSE AGAIN!

3.nor thy mother a woman unchaste!

NOW AGAIN,BY SAYING HER MOTHER WAS UNCHASTE,WHAT ARE THEY TRYING TO SAY?

3 ARGUMENTATIVE STATEMENTS WAS BROUGHT AGAINEST MARY NOW.BY NOW SHE SURELY UNDERSTAND WHAT ARE THEY AIMING AT.AS COMMANDED BY GOD,SHE REMAINED SILENT AND POINTS TO THE BABE JESUS.

THE DRAMA CONTINUES,READ ON.

But she pointed to the babe. They said: How can we talk to one who is a child in the cradle? He said: I am indeed A servant of Allah: He hath given me revelation and made me A prophet; And He hath made me blessed wheresoever I be, And hath enjoined on me prayer and Charity as long As I live; (He) hath made me kind To my mother, and not overbearing or miserable; So peace is on me The day I was born, the day that I die, and the day that I shall be raised up to life (again)!Such (was) Jesus the son Of Mary: (it is) a statement of truth, about which they (vainly) dispute. It is not befitting To (the majesty of) Allah that He should beget a son. Glory be to him! when he determines a matter, He only says To it, be, and it is. Verily Allah is my Lord And your Lord: him therefore serve ye: this is a way that is straight. But the sects differ among themselves: and woe to the Unbelievers because Of the (coming) Judgment Of a momentous Day! How plainly will they see And bear, the day that they will appear before us! but the unjust to day Are in error manifest! (Surah 19:27, 28).FROM YUSUF ALI TRANSLATION!

END OF DRAMA.

WE SHOULD UNDERSTAND WHAT DID MARY UNDERSTAND AT THAT TIME OF REPROACH,BEFORE SHE POINT TO HER BABE ,THEN ALL PROBLEMS WILL BE SOLVED.

BEFORE THAT,LET'S HEAR FROM THE WRITER!

This verse states that after Mary gave birth to Christ, her townsfolk reproached her. They thought she was not married, and assumed that she committed sexual sin because she gave birth. In their reproach, they called her, "Sister of Aaron".(THIS WRITER MISSES ANOTHER TWO POINTS ABOVE!)

This mistake was discerned by the Arabic Christians of Najran. There is a record of them exposing Muhammad's mistake about Mary. It's found in authentic Islamic writings, known as the Hadith, or Traditions. The quote is from the collection of Traditions compiled by an Islamic scholar known as "Imam Muslim". Imam Muslim's collection of Hadith, known as "Sahih Muslim", is considered to be the 3rd most important set of books in Islam, following the Quran, and Hadith collection of Bukhari. "Sahih" means, more or less, "authentic", i.e., they are regarded as authentic by Islamic scholarship.

BEFORE WE SHOULD REALISE WHETHER THERE IS A MISTAKE OR NOT,IN THE FIRST PLACE,THIS WRITER COME TO QUICK CONCULSION,LIKE USING THE TERM "MISTAKE","EXPOSING".

HOWEVER,I WOULD RATHER SAY THAT THE CORRECT TERM TO USE IS,MISUNDERSTANDING AND EXPLAINING! INSTEAD OF "MISTAKE","EXPOSING".

THE WRITER CONTINUES,

In Sahih Muslim, the Hadith related by Mughirah ibn Shu'bah, #5326, says:

"When I came to Najran, they (the Christians of Najran) asked me: You read "Sister of Harun", (i.e. Mary), in the Qur'an, whereas Moses was born well before Jesus. When I came back to Allah's Messenger I asked him about that, and he said: "The (people of the old age) used to give names (to their persons) after the names of Apostle and pious persons who had gone before them."" [Sahih Muslim, translated by Abdul Siddiqi].

END OF QUOTE FROM SAHIH MUSLIM

In effect, when Muhammad was confronted with the mistake of confusing Mary as the sister of Aaron he said that Mary was called the "sister of Aaron" because Aaron was a pious person and Mary was called after Aaron. Muhammad meant that the use of the idiom "sister of Aaron" was not literal, but metaphorical.

"ANALYSIS"

So here is the issue: was Muhammad confused about Mary's identify, or was Mary really identified with and metaphorically called "sister of Aaron"?FINALLY,NOW THE WRITER ASKING A QUESTION BEFORE MAKING HASTY JUGDEMENT.

Was Muhammad telling the truth, or did he cover a mistake with a lie? If Muhammad did lie then in what does that make him? And, if the Qur’an does contain an error then should it be considered the literal word of God or just the synthesis of Muhammad's imagination and various religious stories? I will address this later.WHAT HAPPEN IF HE DID NOT LIE,THEN THE QURAN IS INDEED THE WORD OF GOD.!

#1 The first important clue to note here, and one that is easily overlooked, is found in the text itself. The Arabic Christians of Najran objected to Mary being called "sister of Aaron". This speaks volumes, "Don't miss this fundamental point."

ANOTHER FALLACY:THERE IS NO ARABIC CHRISTIANS THERE!.IT SAYS

In Sahih Muslim, the Hadith related by Mughirah ibn Shu'bah, #5326, says:

"When I came to Najran, they (the Christians of Najran) asked me: You read "Sister of Harun", (i.e. Mary), in the Qur'an, whereas Moses was born well before Jesus. When I came back to Allah's Messenger I asked him about that, and he said: "The (people of the old age) used to give names (to their persons) after the names of Apostle and pious persons who had gone before them."" [Sahih Muslim, translated by Abdul Siddiqi].

SO THEY CAN BE REFERED AS TWO PERSONS ALSO,NOT NECESSARILY VOLUMES!!

Muhammad said that this manner of using the idiom, "sister of Aaron", was done by the pious people of the "old age", i.e. people who lived during Mary's time.

WOW,WHAT A TWIST OF MUHAMMED'S WORD!

WHAT THE PROPHET IS SAYING IS THAT PREVIOUS NATIONS USED TO GIVE NAMES TO THEIR PERSONS AFTER THE NAMES OF APOSTLE AND PIOUS PERSONS WHO HAD GONE BEFORE THEM.

Those people called(NAME) their fellow citizens after pious persons who had lived earlier. But the Christians of Najran did not recognize the use of this idiom. Although they lived some 600 years after Christ's time, they were familiar with their own religious stories, and certainly those of the Jews. But this idiom struck their ears as peculiar.(OF COURSE!DUE TO THEIR MISUNDERSTANDING)If the idiom were familiar to them, they would not have objected.(REALLY!)But the expression "sister of Aaron", when applied to Mary in relation to Aaron, was not familiar.(MAYBE TO THE WRITER!)

Further, they did not recognize the technique or model in which this idiom was used. Had they known the custom that Muhammad said existed, of people calling other people "brother" or "sister" of ancient pious people, like possibly, "sister of Moses", "brother of David", "sister of Abraham", "brother of Isaac", they would have understood what the Qur’an was saying and raised no objection. But both the idiom, and the model in which it is used, were foreign to them.

Note the next critical event. Again, this is fundamental to the point. The Arabic Muslim who came to Najran, and spoke with the Christians, did not know that the term was metaphorical. When confronted with the mistake he was dumbfounded! (IS HE?)He had to go and see Muhammad to find out why there was a mistake in the Quran.

AS USUAL,HASTY CONCULSIONS!

O ye who believe! Obey Allah, and obey the Messenger, and those charged with authority among you. If ye differ in anything among yourselves, refer it to Allah and His Messenger, if ye do believe in Allah and the Last Day: that is best, and most suitable for final determination.(QURAN).

WELL THAT MUSLIM IS ONLY GUIDED BY THE QURAN ,INSTEAD OF PLAYING SMART!

Had he known that it was a metaphorical idiom, he would not have had to go and see Muhammad; he could have told the Najran Christians the meaning of the metaphor. Instead, the Muslim was confused because he also understood the passage to mean that Mary was Aaron's literal sister.

HASTY CONCULSIONS AGAIN!

In sum, the Christians" (MIS)"understood the Arabic of the Qur’an to mean a literal brother and sister relationship between Aaron and Mary. Further, they did not recognize the idiom "sister of Aaron" when Muhammad used it with respect to Mary. In fact, the term, "sister of Aaron" was abnormal to them when applied to anyone other than Aaron's real sister - Miriam. Further the Arabic Muslim, Mughira Shu'bah, also did not know this idiom was metaphorical. He also understood it to be literal. When told of the error, he was confused. and went to see Muhammad to get an answer.

THE WRITER CONTINUED,

POINT 1: The context of this passage shows that people, both Christian and Muslim, understood this idiom to be literal, not metaphorical, and the text shows clearly that both did not recognize the idiom to be metaphorical.

I do not have a problem with someone using metaphors. The Bible and Quran are full of metaphors. Most all great literature uses metaphors. My point is that Muhammad lied when he said that idiom, "sister of Aaron" was used by people during Christ's time. I object to saying a metaphor existed when did not. I object to Muhammad making a mistake and covering it with a lie.

WARNING!AFTER FALSELY ACCUSING THE PROPHET,AS A LIAR,HE TWISTED MUHAMMED'S WORDS!

Muhammad lied when he said that idiom, "sister of Aaron" was used by people during Christ's time.

WELL THIS IS WRONG!WHAT THE PROPHET IS SAYING IS THAT PREVIOUS NATIONS USED TO GIVE NAMES TO THEIR PERSONS AFTER THE NAMES OF APOSTLE AND PIOUS PERSONS WHO HAD GONE BEFORE THEM.

THE WRITER CONTINUED!

An easy Muslim defense at this point is to say that both the Najran Christians, and the Muslim man were ignorant of actual historical use of this type of idiom. They would say I'm drawing to quick a conclusion. (OF COURSE YOU ARE!)Let's continue to investigate.

Examine Muhammad's explanation. He said, "The (people of the old age) used to give names (to their persons) after the names of Apostle and pious persons who had gone before them".

Do we have any evidence that anyone else was ever called, "sister of Aaron", besides his real sister?

YES,THE MOTHER OF JESUS CHRIST!

DO YOU KNOW WHY ?I WILL GIVE YOU THE SOLUTION LATER ON,ITS THAT SIMPLE!

NOW LETS LISTEN TO THE WRITER!

THE EVIDENCE

EVIDENCE FROM THE BIBLE

If there would be one place where Mary or someone else might be called "sister of Aaron", it might be in the Bible. But there is no place where Mary or anyone else is metaphorically called "sister of Aaron".

A NOTE FROM ME.

THE TERM SISTER IS NOT TO BE NARROWED DOWN TO LITERAL SISTER IN BLOOD RELATIONSHIP.

IT CAN BE INTERPRETED AS PEOPLE OF THEIR SAME NATURE OF CHARACTER BEFORE THEM.SUCH AS WE CAN SEE IN THE QURAN!

DIALOGUE BETWEEN UNBELIEVERS AND GOD ALMIGHTY

He will say: "Enter ye in the company of the peoples who passed away before you- men and Jinns- into the Fire. Every time a new people enters, it curses its sister-People (that went before), until they follow each other, all into the Fire. Saith the last about the first: "Our Lord! it is these that misled us: so give them a double penalty in the Fire." He will say: "Doubled for all": but this ye do not understand. Then the first will say to the last: "See then! no advantage have ye over us; so taste ye of the Penalty for all that ye did!"

SO SISTER CAN BE INTERPRETED AS PEOPLE FOLLOWING ANOTHER SET OF PEOPLE OF SAME AIMS OR SAME CHARACTERS OR SAME DEEDS.

THE WRITER CONTINUES!

Perhaps I am being too narrow. Let's expand our search to find, "sister of Aaron", "brother of Aaron", "sister of Moses", and "brother of Moses", used as a metaphor.

Again, there is no one metaphorically referred to in the Bible as any of the above. Moses was truly a great Israelite leader. Certainly if the Jews were going to call people "brother" or "sister" after saints of old, Moses would get his fair share of people identified with him. I would expect that he would get a larger amount of people called after him than Aaron would. But, no where, is it found in the Bible that anyone is called, "brother of Moses", "sister of Aaron", etc.

POINT 2: No one in the Bible is called after the manner Muhammad said existed.?

AGAIN!WHAT MUHAMMED SAID WAS

ARE YOU SAYING THERE IS NO ONE IN THE BIBLE IS CALLED "after the names of Apostle and pious persons "!

THE WRITER CONTINUES!

THE EVIDENCE FROM THE QURAN

Let's examine the Quran. It contains many stories from Judaism, both theological and folklore. One would expect that since Muhammad related so many stories from Jewish legend, that he would have consistently used their metaphors, if he really knew what he was talking about. Or, if he were really getting "revelation" from God, then he would have communicated with the people in the way they understood. Perhaps there is another reference in the Quran to someone being called, "sister of Aaron", or "sister of another great pious person". But as we search, we find none.

NOW COMES THE PROBLEM OF BORROWING!IF A NEW REVELATION HAS SUDDENLY APPEARED IN THE HISTORY OF TIME!AND IF IT CONTAINS MATERIALS OF OLDER REVELATIONS THEN LOGIC SAYS IT HAS BEEN COPYED OR BORROWED!THIS ARGUMENTS HAS ALWAYS PUT AGAINEST THE QURAN SINCE ITS ADVENT!IT CAN NEVER BEING REASONED AS IF SOURCE IS SAME.THE MATERIAL ALSO SHOULD BE THE SAME TO THE CLAIMERS OF BORROWING THEORIES!

HOWEVER TO SOLVE THIS PROBLEMS!

WE SHOULD ANALYSE BOTH SCRIPTURES WITH A CRITICAL EYE OF SCIENCE,REASON AND LOGIC IN MATTERS WHERE SIMLARITY EXISTS!THEN WE CAN BE SURE WHICH IS COMING FROM GOD OR NOT!

TO COME BACK!THE WRITER HIMSELF SAID,

"One would expect that since Muhammad related so many stories from Jewish legend, that he would have consistently used their metaphors.

SO WHAT HAS PREVENTED HIM NOT TO USE THE METAPHORS THAT ARE EXISTING!IF HE GET MOST OF HIS MATERIAL FROM JEWISH MATERIALS!

In fact, I find that there are about 14 times the actual Arabic word "sister" (ukhtun) is used in the Quran. One time it refers to "Mary, sister of Aaron". Eleven times it refers to a blood relative, one time it is used as "sister-nation" (7:38), and one time it refers to "sister-sign", (43:48). Each of the metaphorical uses of "sister" refers to a case of concurrent relationship. And, in each use of relational "sister", the reference is to an actual relative.

THE QURAN DOES NOT SAYS CONCURRENTLY INSTEAD IT SAYS,

He will say: "Enter ye in the company of the peoples who passed away before you- men and Jinns- into the Fire. Every time a new people enters, it curses its sister-People (that went before), until they follow each other, all into the Fire. Saith the last about the first: "Our Lord! it is these that misled us: so give them a double penalty in the Fire." He will say: "Doubled for all": but this ye do not understand. Then the first will say to the last: "See then! no advantage have ye over us; so taste ye of the Penalty for all that ye did!"

READ THE FIRST AND THE LAST REFERING TO ALL NOT NECESSARILY CONCURRENT!LET SAY,THE FIRST GROUP IS THE BIG SISTER AND THE LAST GROUP IS THE SMALL SISTER,THEY STILL CALL EACH OTHER SISTER.THUS ACCORDING TO THE VERSE ABOVE THE SMALL SISTER GROUP CURSES,ITS BIG SISTER GROUP.THE CURSE IS HIGHLIGHTED IN GREEN!

THE WRITER CONTINUES!

I expanded the search to include, "brother of Aaron", "sister of Moses", and "brother of Moses".

Again, at no time is the idiom used to represent someone being called "brother" or "sister" with respect to someone who has preceded him by hundreds of years.

Further, I find that "brother" (akhun) is used about 82 times in the Quran. Much of the time it is used literally. Many times it is used metaphorically, as in living Muslims being "brothers" in the faith, or one man being a "brother" to his living tribe. In no case is it ever used to metaphorically between a living man, and one who has preceded him by hundreds of years. In other words, there is no other textual support for this idiom's model in the Quran.

I'll also note that Aaron is mentioned about 20 times in the Quran. Only Mary is called "sister of Aaron" after him. Moses is mentioned I would say about 150 times, more or less. In no instance, is anyone called, "brother or sister of Moses" metaphorically.

POINT 3: There is no other textual support in the Quran for anyone ever being called "sister" or "brother" after Muhammad's model; the only people called "sister" or "brother" are people who are related to each other. Further, when "sister" is most often used, it refers to a living blood relative.

THE EVIDENCE FROM THE HADITH

I expanded the search to the Hadith. Muhammad talked quite a bit(OF COURSE!HE HAD TO,HE IS A PROPHET), and his followers hung on his every word.(I WISH THEY WOULD!)His words are recorded in thousands of Hadith. I've searched exhaustively Bukhari's Hadith (the 2nd most important set of books in Islam), for the terms, "sister of Aaron", "sister of Moses", "brother of Aaron", and "brother of Moses". I found no references.

I also searched Muslim's set of Hadith for the same references. I found none. Note however, that my search of Muslim was only partial. I estimate about 1/2, so there still might be a reference in Muslim's Hadith that I missed.

I'll also note that there were few references to Aaron in either Bukhari or Muslim.

I also searched the Hadith of Abu Dawud for the same four references. Again, I found none. Note again that my search of Abu Dawud was only partial. I estimate about 1/2, so there still might be a reference in Abu Dawud's Hadith that I missed.

POINT 4: There is no textual evidence found in the Hadith that anyone used idiom's like "sister of Aaron".

EVIDENCE FROM THE NEW TESTAMENT (NT) AND NT APOCRYPHA: WHAT IDIOM MODEL IS USED BY THE (NT) WHEN REFERRING TO PIOUS LEADER OF THE OLD TESTAMENT (OT)?

When the NT refers to people being called after saints of old, it calls them, "son" or "daughter". Jesus is called "son of David" in Matthew 21:9, and Elizabeth is called, "daughter of Aaron" in Luke 1:5, etc. Abraham is referred to as "father" by the Jews in John 8:38. But never are these people called, "brothers or sisters" after any of the previous saints. The uses of these "son " and "daughter" idioms were accepted and understood by all in that culture. And their use makes sense. Since the great pious people of old helped to create or establish the nation of Israel, people following afterwards are understandably called, "son" or "daughter" after them. We use this same idiom model in this day. There is an American organization called, "Daughters of the Revolution". Perhaps you can think of other people or groups called "sons or daughters" after famous people who are now dead.

EVIDENCE FROM THE NT APOCRYPHA WORKS

I've checked through about 11 different NT Apocrypha writings for a reference to Mary being called the "sister of Aaron". Here are the works:

The Arabic Gospel of the Infancy

The Gospel of Bartholomew

The Protevangelium of James

The Gospel of Mary

The Gospel of Thomas

The Infancy Gospel of Thomas

The Infancy Gospel of Thomas, text A

The Infancy Gospel of Thomas, text B

The Gospel of the Infancy

The Gospel of Peter

The Nativity of Mary

I found no references to Mary ever being called, "the sister of Aaron", in any of the material above.

But note however, on the other hand, in the Arabic Gospel of the Infancy, I found the idiom, "daughters of Eve" used. I also found Jesus called, "the Son of David".

In the Protevangelium of James I found the idiom, "daughters of the Hebrews" It also declares, "Mary of the tribe of David", i.e., she is descended from Judah, not Levi, (Aaron's tribal forefather).

The Nativity of Mary also says Mary is "born of David". And the idiom, "Sarah mother of the nation" is used.

SUMMATION OF NT AND NT APOCRYPHA WRITINGS

Again, there is no textual support for Mary being called, "sister of Aaron". And, the idioms that are used, parallel those found in the Bible, i.e., when people are called after previous saints, they are referred to as sons or daughters, not brothers or sisters.

POINT 5: There is no textual support for Mary ever being called, "sister of Aaron" in any of the earliest Christian writings.

OTHER JEWISH SOURCE MATERIAL AND REFERENCES

I've asked a Messianic Christian to do some searching of Judaic material for a idiom like "sister of Aaron", or "brother of Moses". He first checked with a number of Judaic scholars. None of them ever heard of an idiom like the one in question used in that way. He then checked on two books which draw on a wide range of material relation to Kaballah in connection with Jewish Messianic aspirations:

1) Gershom Scholem's book on Messiah "Sabatai Sevi"

2) "The Messiah of Ismir" by Joseph Kastein.

Neither of these had any reference to the idiom in question.

He then examined the "Jewish Encyclopedia", by Funk and Wagnalls, a 12 volume set. He found nothing directly relating to the idiom's use. He followed the history and legends concerning Aaron's rod up to reports that Joseph (Jesus' earthly father) cane into its possession and took it to Egypt with him. Again, he found nothing that related to the idiom in question. He searched through the Ency. references on Mary. Again nothing showed up that relates to the idiom.

He checked through the Midrash Rabbah on Exodus, and again, found nothing in support of Muhammad's model.

He checked through the Bablyonia Talmud, and found nothing with respect to the idiom in question.

All in all, he checked through a great deal of material. Again I'll note that he is very well read in Judaic writings, as are the scholars with whom he has interfaced. None of them have ever heard of the an idiom like "sister of Aaron" or "brother of Moses" used metaphorically.

POINT 6: There is no evidence that the idiom, "sister of Mary" was ever used in Judaic writings.

SUMMATION OF TEXTUAL EVIDENCE

There is no textual evidence that the idiom, "sister of Aaron" or similar was used by Jews or Christians. Muhammad's statement, that people in NT times called others "sister" after previous pious persons has no textual support anywhere.

END OF WRITERS RESEARCH! WOW!

I DO NOT WISH TO GO ALL THROUGH THE REFERENCES QUOTED FOR THE IDIOM! BECAUSE THIS PROBLEM REQUIRES AN EXPLANATION RATHER THAN EXAMPLE!THEREFORE I WILL PRESENT MY CASE NOW!

RECAP!

MY PRESENTATION OF THE ABOVE VERSES.

At length she brought The (babe) to her people, carrying him (in her arms). They said: O Mary! Truly an amazing thing hast thou brought!

1)O sister of Aaron!

2)Thy father was not A man of evil,

3)nor thy mother a woman unchaste!

POINTS TO NOTE!

1)THEY CALLED HER MARY.

2)ENQUIRY"Truly an amazing thing hast thou brought!

3)REPROACH BY HER PEOPLE BY THREE REMARKS!

3 ARGUMENTATIVE STATEMENTS WAS BROUGHT AGAINEST MARY NOW.BY NOW SHE SURELY UNDERSTAND WHAT ARE THEY AIMING AT.AS COMMANDED BY GOD,SHE REMAINED SILENT AND POINTS TO THE BABE JESUS.

THIS THREE STATEMENTS IS USED TO REMIND MARY OF HER HIGH LINEAGE AND HER RESPECTFUL NAME!AS WE KNOW

MARY THE MOTHER OF JESUS AND MIRIAM THE SISTER OF AARON ARE TWO DIFFERENT PERSONS HAVING THE SAME NAME.AT FIRST WE OUGHT TO WONDER WHY IS SHE CALLED SISTER OF AARON WHEN HER NAME IS MARY,BUT WHEN COMPARING TO THE SITUATION OF MARY ABOVE! IT IS CLEAR BECAUSE AS PROPHET MUHAMMED SAID" "The (people of the old age) used to give names (to their persons) after the names of Apostle and pious persons who had gone before them.

"SHE HAS BEEN NAMED MARY AFTER THE SISTER OF AARON.!

SOME DETAILS ABOUT AARON'S SISTER!MIRIAM

READ EXODUS 15.20,15.21,NUMBERS 12.1,12.4,12.5

AS SUCH HAVING A RESPECTED NAME FROM SISTER OF AARON,MIRIAM AND HER FATHER WAS NOT AN EVIL MAN AND HER MOTHER WAS NOT UNCHASTE!HOW COULD SHE BROUGHT A CHILD WITHOUT A FATHER.! HER PEOPLE EXCLAIMED!

FINALLY WE CAN COME TO THE CONCULSION THAT THE VERSE

"O SISTER OF AARON" IS USED IN A SENSE TO DENOTE HER HIGH POSITION BY HER NAME NOT CALLING HER IN A NORMAL SENSE AS THEY HAD ALREADY CALLED HER MARY.

END OF CASE!

SO THIS IS THE PROBLEM FACING MOST OF THE CHRISTIANS AS IT HAS CLEARLY EXPLAINED ABOVE!

THE WRITER CONTINUES!

MUSLIM EXPLANATIONS

Of course there have been several Muslim attempts to explain away the Quran's mistake, and Muhammad's "cover up" lie.

One of the greatest Muslim scholars was Baidawi. His commentary is highly respected and he is esteemed in Islamic circles.

Baidawi's explanation along with another man named Husain, are briefly mentioned in the Hughes "Dictionary of Islam", page 328, it reads,

"Al-Baizawi says she was called "sister of Aaron" because she was of the Levitical race, but Husain says that the Aaron mentioned in the verse is not the same person as the brother of Moses."

Baidawi claims that Mary was of the Levitical race. But the Biblical evidence suggests otherwise. First of all, it is generally accepted that Mary's genealogy is given in Luke chapter 3. And, in Hebrews 7:14 it says,

"Now if perfection had been attainable through the Levitical priesthood for the people received the law under this priesthood what further need would there have been to speak of another priest arising according to the order of Melchizedek rather than one according to the order of Aaron? For when there is a change in the priesthood, there is necessarily a change in the law as well. Now the one of whom these things are spoken belonged to another tribe, from which no one has ever served at the altar. For it is evident that our Lord descended from Judah and in connection with that tribe Moses said nothing about priests". [New Revised Standard Version].

Therefore, the Biblical evidence says that Mary is descended from Judah, not Levi. And, we can also reference the NT apocrypha writings, they also say that Mary was descended from Judah, not Levi.

Husain says that the "Aaron" mentioned in the Quran is not Moses's brother, but another person named Aaron. But Muhammad said that Mary was called after a previous pious person. But note that both the Arabic Christians of Najran and the Arabic Muslim understood it to be Aaron, and , Muhammad did not address the possibility of "Aaron" being someone else.

Further, both Baidawi and Husain left out part of Muhammad's explanation. Muhammad said more than it was a metaphorical use of "sister". He said it was also used by people in Christ's time. And as we see, there is no textual evidence to support Muhammad's claim.

POINT 7: Baidawi's and Husain's explanations of the metaphor fails the textual test.

The editor of the Hadith of Muslim, Abdul Siddiqi, also includes a defense of Muhammad's mistake in the Quran. He says, in Volume 3, page 1169,

"The objections raised by the Christians of Najran was that in the Holy Quran, in Sura 19, verse 28, Hadrat Maryam has been addressed as the sister of Harun: Ya ukkata Hdruna, whereas Harun was the brother of Moses who lived long before the birth of Jesus. How could then Mary, the mother of Jesus, they contended, be the sister of Harun? The prophet told Mughira that here Harun did not imply the real brother of Mary, but as it was customary to name persons after the names of the Apostles and pious people, that was the reason why she was called the sister of Harun.

The other explanation is that Mary might have actually a brother Harun, who had been named after the name of Prophet Harun, the brother of Moses."

END OF SIDDIQI'S QUOTE

Siddiqi makes the same assumption as Baidawi does, and his explanation misses the point in the same way. But Siddiqi goes further. He includes an explanation similar to Husain's. He says that perhaps Mary had a brother called "Aaron". This is an obtuse stretch. If that were the case, Muhammad would have said that Mary had a brother called "Aaron", instead of going into the "calling people after old pious people" explanation. Muhammad was not to bright at times, but he usually cut straight to the point when the explanation was simple.

POINT 8: Abdul Siddiqi's explanation also fails the textual test.

Another group of Muslims try to defend the mistake. Their explanation is similar to the previous explanations. This one deals with the Arabic definition of the word, "sister". Here is one point raised by several Muslim writers: M.Ghoniem, M. Ahmed, and M. Saifullah, (this group of writers is referred to as GAS):

"This claim of contradiction is apparently mistaken because it disregards both the Arabic idiom and the context of the verse. In Arabic the word "akhun" or "ukhtun"

carries two meanings: 1) Blood brother or sister and, 2) Brotherhood/sisterhood in clan and faith."

I'll note here that the mistake in the Quran is not so much a "contradiction", as it is a confusion. Muhammad was confused and mistaken about Mary being the sister of Aaron.

The problem with this explanation is that Muhammad did not explain it only in that way. Muhammad explained it as: "The (people of the old age) used to give names (to their persons) after the names of Apostle and pious persons who had gone before them". Muslims don't want to address the issue, so they build a straw-man argument, and provide an easy explanation for a point that isn't there.

Muhammad did not say, "The Arabic term "ukhtun" can be interpreted in two ways". Muhammad did not say that the word for "sister" can have two meanings. If that was what he intended, he would have told Mughira that Mary was called that because she was a fellow Jew, or fellow Israelite, or descendant of Levi, and that it was his metaphor, or Allah's metaphor. Instead, he said that the term was not literal, but was used metaphorically, after an old custom. Of course Muhammad THEN meant that Mary was a sister in the faith, but Muhammad said more than just that. Muhammad added the line about an old custom to call people "sister of xxxxx". So there was more than just a metaphorical use; there was supposedly an established historical use. And, as we see, there is none.

POINT 9: The above explanation is another incomplete explanation: it does not address the real issue. The custom of calling people "brother or sister" after people of old did not exist.

To continue with these same explanations, here is another point raised by the GAS writers. Wishing to support the explanation that "the above verse has used the word "ukhtun" in the second sense", i.e., that Mary was a sister in the faith, not a flesh and blood sister, they cite several verses from the Quran which uses, "brother", defined as meaning brotherhood in the faith.

They wrote:

"This is not unusual as the Qur'an uses the same idiomatic expression in several earlier verses. In chapter 11 verse 78, Prophet Lot refers to the women folk of his community as my daughters.

"And his people came rushing towards him, and they had been long in the habit of practicing abominations. He said: "O my people! Here are "my daughters": they are purer for you (if ye marry)! Now fear Allah, and cover me not with shame about my guests! Is there not among you a single right-minded man?"

In Chapter 7 verses 65, 73 and 85 Prophets Hud, Saleh and Shuaib are referred to as "brothers" of their respective peoples. "And unto (the tribe of) A'ad (We sent) their "brother", Hud. He said: O my people! Serve Allah. Ye have no other Allah save Him. Will ye not ward off (evil)?" [Qur'an 7:65]"

END OF GAS QUOTE

The problem with their use of "brother" or "daughter" is that in all cases, the "brother" or "daughter" are one or more who are currently is living in the same place and same time as the reference. Start with 11:78. The GAS writers misinterpret the Quran, saying the "daughters" are the women of Lot's village. They are actually Lot's daughters. But that is not the point. The point is that Lot was addressing people who lived with him at the same time, in the same place. So, this use of a metaphor in manner of idiom, fails the parallel of context with the way Muhammad explained it. Aaron lived well before Mary, and in a different land.

Take 7:65, 73, 85. Again, in each case, the "brother" was used with respect to people who the messengers were sent. These "brothers" were people from the same tribe; they were fellow citizens. Calling them "brothers" is quite appropriate; they were blood relatives to those that were living there.

POINT 10: When the term "brother" is used in the Quran to describe a metaphoric relationship between humans it never refers to people who are not contemporary. The GAS attempt to use this model of idiomatic use does not justify Muhammad's use of a different model.

The GAS writers then quote from one of the earliest translators of the Qur’an, George Sale. Sale was of the opinion that Muhammad did not make a mistake, but that Muhammad was using an idiom.

Here is Sale's quote as quoted by GAS:

"George Sale in his translation of the Qur'an says:

From the identity of names it has been generally imagined by Christian writers that the Koran here confounds Mary the mother of Jesus with Mary of Miriam, the sister of Moses and Aaron; which intolerable anachronism, if it were certain, is sufficient of itself to destroy the pretended authority of this book.

But though Mohammed may be supposed to have been ignorant enough in ancient history and chronology, to have committed so gross a blunder; yet I do not see how it can be made out from the words of the Koran. For it does not follow, because two persons have the same name, and have each a father and brother who bear the same names, that they must therefore necessarily be the same whereby it manifestly appears that Mohammed well knew and asserted that Moses preceded Jesus several ages. And the commentators accordingly fail not to tell us, that there had passed about one thousand eight hundred years between Amran the father of Moses and Amrean the father of the Virgin Mary: they also make them the sons of different persons; the first, they say, was the son of Yeshar, or Izhar (though he was really his brother) the son of Kahath, the son of Levi; and the other was the son of Matthan, whose genealogy they trace, but in a very corrupt and imperfect manner, up to David and thence to Adam. It must be observed that though the Virgin Mary is called in the Koran, the sister of Aaron, yet she is nowhere called the sister of Moses. "

END OF GAS QUOTE

Sale is saying that Muhammad knew that Moses and Aaron preceded Mary and Jesus by hundreds of years. Sale says that if Muhammad really meant she was a literal sister then the entire Quran, and the Islamic religion would be in doubt. Well was Muhammad thoroughly and completely knowledgeable? Or did Muhammad learn as he went along? Further, couldn't Muhammad have had another mental relapse? More on this later.

Finally, the GAS Muslim writers also try to justify Muhammad's use of a metaphorical idiom by quoting from the Bible. Throughout the Bible, people are called "sons" or even "daughter" of their forefathers. The Muslim writers quote several of these cases.

They wrote:

"In the Bible, Elizabeth was called daughters of Aaron. Was she literally a daughter of Aaron?

"In the days of Herod, King of Judea, there was a priest named Zechari'ah, of the division of Abi'jah; and he had a wife of the daughters of Aaron, and her name was Elizabeth." [Luke 1:5, RSV]

Or Jesus was addressed as Son of David in the Bible. Was he literally Son of David?

"And the crowds that went before him and that followed him shouted, "Hosanna to the Son of David! Blessed is he who comes in the name of the Lord! Hosanna in the highest!""

[Matthew 21:9 RSV]

If we take that literally then it is also a contradiction in the Bible."

The Muslim writers seek to defend Muhammad's use of the idiom, "Mary, sister of Aaron", by comparing it to metaphorical idioms found throughout the Bible. We all know that Elizabeth was not the literal daughter of Aaron, but she was his descendant. We all know that Jesus was not literally David's son, but He was his descendant. The problem is not with the use of a metaphorical idiom, but with the use of an unfamiliar or non-existing idiom. If Muhammad would have said in the Quran, "Mary, daughter of Abraham", perhaps the Christians of Najran would not have objected. Instead, Muhammad said, "Mary, sister of Aaron". And that is where the problem lies.

POINT 11: The idioms used in the NT were understood by those present. They fit the OT model as well. Trying to justify Muhammad's idiom as non-literal, based upon non-literal Biblical idioms fails the test. They are not parallel, they are not the same model.

YUSEF ALI'S DEFENSE OF THE QURAN'S ERROR

In his commentary on the Quran, on Footnote 2481 for 19:28, Yusef Ali writes:

"Aaron, the brother of Moses, was the first in the line of Israelite priesthood. Mary and her cousin Elisabeth (mother of Yahya) came of a priestly family, and were therefore "sisters of Aaron" or daughters of Imran (who was Aaron's father)..."

What Ali is saying is that because Mary was a descendant of Aaron (as has been seen, she wasn't), she is qualified to be called "sister of Aaron". Again, this misses Muhammad's explanation. And Ali, like the other Muslim apologists, fail to address the real issue.

Further, one would think that she would be called, "daughter" of Aaron, not his sister. After all, using "daughter" would be in accordance with established practice. Why would "Allah". (read Muhammad) use an unfamiliar term with the people with whom he was speaking with? Doesn't it make sense to communicate with terms that the people you are speaking with understand? "Daughter" would have been far more appropriate than "sister".

Ali also adds another interesting note in his Quran. On footnote 375 for 3:35, he writes:

"Now we begin the story of Jesus. As a prelude we have the birth of Mary and the parallel story of John the Baptist, Yahya the son of Zakariya. Yahya's mother Elisabeth was a cousin of Mary the mother of Jesus and therefore John and Jesus were cousins by blood, and there was a spiritual cousin hood in their birth and career. Elisabeth was of the daughter of Aaron of a priestly family which went back to Aaron the brother of Moses and son of Imran. Her Husband Zakariya was actually a priest and her cousin Mary was presumable also of a priestly family. By tradition Mary's mother was called Hannah (in Latin Anna, and in English, Anne), and her father was called Imran...."

Ali does not give any reference for this "tradition" he refers to, i.e. that Mary's father's name was Imran. There may be a good reason for him not providing the reference. When Ali says, "By tradition", he is probably referring to the "Protevangelium of James" which is a NT apocrypha book. This book states that Mary's mother's name is Hanna, BUT, also states that her husband's name is "Joachim", not "Imran". Ali is smart enough to only quote part of the story. He knew that if he quoted it all, his support would weaken. And, note that Ali doesn't mentions that the Protevangelium of James states ,"Mary of the tribe of David", i.e., she is descended from Judah. This would totally undermine his defense.

POINT 12: Ali's defense also falls short. Ali fails to be completely truthful or complete in his quotes and he, like the other Muslim apologists fails to address the real issue. Instead of saying it was a custom of calling people after previous saints, he tries to make it acceptable by claiming that since Mary was descended from Aaron, she can be called his sister.

NOW THE WRITER IS TRYING TO REFUTE SOME OF THE EXPLANATION GIVEN BY SOME MUSLIMS.

ALTHOUGH SOME ARE REASONABLE AND SOME ARE NOT!I AM NOT GOING TO INDULGE IN THAT MATTERS.AS FAR AS I AM CONCERNED,MOST OF THE PEOPLE WHO ARE KEEN IN FINDING FAULT IN THE QURAN,HAS EVERY INSTANCE OVERLOOKED THE MAIN PICTURE OF THE INCIDENT.AND VERSES TAKEN OUT OF CONTEXT.AND SOME WRITERS HAS ALREADY MAKE THEMSELF AS JUDGES JUDGING AND GIVING THEIR OWN VERDICT.WE CAN ONLY PRESENT OUR CASE BUT NOT TO GIVE A VERDICT BECAUSE THAT DEPARTMENT IS RESERVED ONLY TO ALLAH ALMIGHTY.AS WE ALWAYS SAY ALLAH KNOWS THE BEST!

WASSALAM!