If any man ever enters into Christ, if any man is ever pleasing to God, and if any man ever enters heaven, it will be by God's grace. I will agree with the author that "salvation is by grace or not at all." That is not the issue. The issue is salvation by grace only? If God expects, requires, demands or provides for even one action on man's part, then salvation by God's grace does not exclude man from doing some work.
"Repent and be baptized for the remission of sins" (Acts 2:38). The author states: "I read a very good explanation of the possible understanding of the word "for" in this verse." Note the "very good explanation” of the "possible understanding." Space will not permit me to print all he said, but he sums up by saying: "the word 'for' signifies an action in the past....Once one knows that he has been truly forgiven and accepts that grace, he will then submit and desire immersion." Of course we sometimes use "for" in that sense, but is that it's use in Acts 2:38?
First consider the context. Peter had just convicted these hearers of the crucifixion of Christ (v 36). They cried out "Men and brethren, what shall we do?" Did Peter say, "Repent and be baptized because you are already saved?" No, he said, "Repent and be baptized for [in order to] the remission of sins." If "for" means "because of remission of sins," and therefore renders baptism unnecessary, would it not have the same effect on the command to repent. In the first article we pointed out that the copulative conjunction "and" joins words or phrases of equal value. Therefore if baptism is not required, neither is repentance required. That cannot be so (Acts 17:30).
In Matt. 26:28 we read where Jesus said, "For this is the blood of the New Testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins." That is the same phrase (in English and Greek) which is used in Acts 2:38 in reference to repentance and baptism. Does that make the blood of Christ non-essential? Did he shed His blood because the sins were already forgiven? Who is willing to take that view? Examine how "eis" (the Greek preposition translated "for") is used with other requirements for salvation. Rom. 10:10, reads: "with the heart man believeth unto [eis] righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto [eis] salvation." That is the same preposition which is used in acts 2:38 with repentance and baptism-"for [eis] the remission of sins." If for (eis) the remission of sins means, "because of salvation," then man believes, "because of righteousness", and he confesses, "because of salvation." We need to be fair to ourselves in studying the scriptures. If we are going to rule out the essentiality of baptism, based on the meaning of the word "for" (Greek eis), then must we not rule out belief, repentance, confession, and even the blood of Christ for salvation.
What is difficult with the terms: "Repent and be baptized for the remission of sins; He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; Arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins; Baptism doeth also now save us" (Acts 2:38; Mark 16:16; Acts 22:16; and I Pet.3:21)?
There is no question that salvation is by grace through faith (Titus 2:11-12; Rom.5:1). The question, is salvation by grace through faith only? James said that "faith without works is dead" (James 2:26). We are saved by grace through faith when that faith "worketh by love" (Gal.5:6).
"If any man speak let him speak as the oracles of God" (I Pet. 4:11).
Don H. Noblin
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