The writer states: "One can observe the legalistic environment Paul and Barnabas fought in Acts 15. Certain men taught that circumcision was required for one to be saved. Those certain men are identified in verse 5 as believing Pharisees." The writer is comparing the command to be baptized in order to be saved, to false teachers that were holding to the law of Moses. Verse 5 reads: "But there rose up certain of the sect of the Pharisees which believed, saying, That it was needful to circumcise them, and to command them to keep the law of Moses." Paul said: "Stand fast therefore in the liberty wherewith Christ hath made us free [truth makes one free John 8:32], and be not entangled again with the yoke of bondage [the law of Moses]. {2} Behold, I Paul say unto you, that if ye be circumcised, Christ shall profit you nothing. {3} For I testify again to every man that is circumcised, that he is a debtor to do the whole law. {4} Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace" (Gal 5:1-4).
Legalism is not where the problem was. Their problem was that they were teaching that which was false. Legalism is defined as, "Strict, literal adherence to the law or to a particular code, as of religion or morality" (American Heritage Dictionary).
Are there no commands that we must obey? The writer himself said: "Peter issued the strongest commandment possible in his language - REPENT." Is that legalism? A command is not optional, it must be obeyed. If repentance is the strongest commandment, he would also be making the statement that baptism is just as strong a command. Peter didn't say "REPENT." What he said was "Repent and be baptized." It is not grammatically possible to separate "repent" from "be baptized" in Acts 2:38. God used the copulative conjunction "and" to couple "repent and be baptized". So the writer himself said that Peter "issued the strongest command possible in his language." The command was "repent and be baptized." The purpose was, "for [unto] the remission of sins."
What did Jesus have to say about those who reject the commandments of God? "And he said unto them, Full well ye reject the commandment of God, that ye may keep your own tradition. Making the word of God of none effect through your tradition, which ye have delivered: and many such like things do ye" (Mark 7:9, 13).
Then the writer quotes Acts 15:11: "But we believe that through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved, even as they." Note the "even as they" at the end of the verse. How were they saved by grace? Note what Peter said in verse 7: "Peter rose up, and said unto them, Men and brethren, ye know how that a good while ago God made choice among us, that the Gentiles by my mouth should hear the word of the gospel, and believe." The Gentiles and the Jews were to be saved in the same manner. How were the Jews saved on Pentecost? What was the command that Peter gave? "Repent and be baptized...for the remission of sins" (Acts 2:38) Both the Jews and the Gentiles have the same command. Anything less is to reject the commandments of God. Therefore making the "word of God of none effect" (Mark 7:13).
"If any man speak let him speak as the oracles of God" (I Pet. 4:11).
Don H. Noblin
For questions or comments about this article, email Don H. Noblin. If you decide to email me, please include the title of the article. Thank you.