A reader writes:
"Now as to salvation without Church affiation (sic). Any scripture to that effect? Please read Eph:(2-8&9) Acts 2-21 (John 3-15) II Tim 3-15 (2nd Thes. 2:13) 1st Peter 1:5) (John 3:16) (John 3:36) (John 10:28) (1st John 5:1) (1st Peter 1:5) All these promises salvation without Baptism. You are not a fit subject for Baptism unless you have been born again, Repent ask God to save you as there is no other way. No church involvement is required for Salvation. It is a gift from God And there is lots more Scriptures that Teach Eternal life without Baptism."
I want to say as we begin this study that we welcome all sincere letters. It is our aim and purpose to only teach the truth. But we must understand all of God's plan of salvation is not found in one verse of scripture. We must determine who it is written to and not take the verse out of its context in order to prove a point. I will try to deal fairly and kindly in our study of this letter. It is never my intent to be offensive.
Now look at Eph. 2:8-9 that the writer refers to: "For by grace are ye saved through faith; and not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:" Question: 1- Is one saved by grace alone? 2- Is one saved by faith alone? 3- Are both grace and faith required by this verse? 4- Is it possible that there is at least one other thing required in order to be saved? The word "grace" is defined as "unmerited favor". We cannot be saved without the grace of God, and that means that we neither deserve nor earn our salvation. But note other passages that make similar statements as Eph. 2:8-9: "For we are saved by hope" (Rom.8:24); "Whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved" (Acts 2:21); Jesus said "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved..."(Mark 15:16). "...Baptism doth also now save us..."(I Pet.3:21). "Ye see then how that by works a man is justified [saved] and not by faith only" (James 2:24). Are we to take only the verses we like and discard the others? Is it possible that only part of these verses are true? To reject even one verse is to reject God! What are we to believe? The writer states that all Scriptures that are given "promises salvation without baptism." Yet many when kept in the context teach baptism. Note the passage in Acts 2:21, then read down to verse 37-38, where we read where those Jews that had crucified Christ asked,"...Men and brethren what shall we do?" What was Peter's reply? "Repent, and be baptized..." What do we need to be baptized for Peter? "...For the remission of sins..." The same apostle that quoted Joel in verse 21, "whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved," says, "repent and be baptized for the remission of sins." To be saved is to have sins removed. But then we read where Ananias told Saul, "And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord"(Acts 22:16).
Space will not permit going into detail on all of these verses, so I will only ask some questions. (a) Did Ananias tell Saul he was saved when he believed? (b) If one is saved is he still in his sins? (c) What does it mean to wash away sins? (d) Was Saul saved by only calling on the name of the Lord? (e) Was he saved by baptism only? (f) Could his sins have been washed away without baptism? If so, How? Please study on these things. I will discuss in the next article the "no church involvement."
"If any man speak let him speak as the oracles of God" (I Pet.4:11).
Don H. Noblin
For questions or comments about this article, email Don H. Noblin. If you decide to email me, please include the title of the article. Thank you.