ANSWERS TO FAQ BY CHRISTIANS FROM THE BIBLE
^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
Note: The following is written in the language that is intended
as an invitation (Daw'ah) to Christians, from their biblical
perspective.
Question No.1
^^^^^^^^^^^^^
Jesus said: "I and the Father are one" (Jn.10:30),
therefore, is not Jesus the same, or,
"co-equal" in status with his Father?
Answer No.1
^^^^^^^^^^^
In Greek, `heis' means `one' numerically (masc.)
`hen' means `one' in unity or essence (neut.)
Here the word used by John is `hen' and not `heis'.
The marginal notes in New American Standard Bible (NASB) reads;
one - (Lit.neuter) a unity, or, one essence.
If one wishes to argue that the word `hen' supports their claim
for Jesus being "co-equal" in status with his Father, please
invite his/her attention to the following verse:
Jesus said: "And the glory which Thou hast given me, I have given
to them (disciples); that they may be one,
just as we are one." (John 17:22).
If he/she was to consider/regard/believe the Father and Jesus Christ
to be "one" meaning "co-equal" in status on the basis of John 10:30,
then that person should also be prepared to consider/regard/believe
"them" - the disciples of Jesus, to be "co-equal" in status with
the Father and Jesus ("just as we are one") in John 17:22.
I have yet to find a person that would be prepared to make the
disciples (students) "co-equal" in status with the Father or Jesus.
The unity and accord was of the authorized divine message that
originated from the Father, received by Jesus and finally
passed on to the disciples. Jesus admitted having accomplished
the work which the Father had given him to do. (Jn.17:4)
Hot Tip: (precise and pertinent)
^^^^^^^^
Jesus said: "I go to the Father; for the Father is greater than I."
(Jn.14:28). This verse unequivocally refutes the claim by any one for
Jesus being "co-equal" in status with his Father.
*********************************************************************
Question No.2
^^^^^^^^^^^^^
Jesus said: "I am the way, ...no one comes to the Father,
but through me." (Jn.14:6), therefore,
is not the Salvation through Jesus, ALONE?
Answer No.2
^^^^^^^^^^^
Before Jesus spoke these words, he said; "In my Father's house
are many mansions (dwelling places); if it were not so, I would
have told you; for I go to prepare a mansion (a dwelling place)
for you." (John 14:2). ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
The above explicit statement confirms that Jesus was going to
prepare "a" mansion and not "all" the mansions in "my Father's house".
Obviously, the prophets that came before him and the one to come after,
were to prepare the other mansions for their respective followers.
The prophet that came after Jesus had evidently shown the current
"way" to a modern mansion in the kingdom of heaven.
Besides; the verse clearly states; Jesus was the "WAY" to a mansion.
It is a folly to believe that Jesus (or any prophet) was the
"DESTINATION".
Jesus said; "I am the door" to find the pasture. (Jn.10:9).
A sheep that walks through the "door" will find the pasture.
A sheep that circles around the "door" will never find the pasture.
One who crosses over the "way" will reach the mansion.
Anyone that stops on the "way" and believes the "way" to be the
end of his/her journey, will be out in the open
without any shelter and a roof.
Hot Tip: (precise and pertinent)
^^^^^^^^
Jesus said; "Not every one that says to me; `Lord, Lord,' will
enter the kingdom of heaven; but he who does the will of
my Father, who is in heaven." (Mt.7:21).
******************************************************************
Question No.3
^^^^^^^^^^^^^
Jesus said: "He who has seen me has seen the Father" (Jn.14:9),
does this not prove that Jesus Christ and his Father
were one and the same?
Answer No.3
^^^^^^^^^^^
One day to prove a point and settle an argument, Jesus picked up
a child and said to his disciples; "Whoever receives this child
in my name receives me; and whoever receives me receives Him
who sent me;" (Luke 9:48).
Jesus said; "He who believes in me does not believe in me,
but in Him who sent me." (John 12:44)
"He who hates me hates my Father also. ...but now
they have both seen and hated me and my Father
as well." (John 15:23-24)
"And this is eternal life, that they may know Thee
the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom Thou
hast sent." (John 17:3).
The call of sincerity demands that if believing in the Truth is
the honest intention then one could only pass an ethical judgement
after reflecting upon all the relevant texts.
John 17:3 (quoted above), if read with the following verse
clears the air.
Hot Tip: (precise and pertinent)
^^^^^^^^
Jesus said; "Truly, truly, I say to you, a slave is not greater
than his master; neither one who is sent greater than the one
who sent him." (John 13:16).
During his ministry, Jesus repeatedly said he was sent by his Father.
***********************************************************
Question No.4
^^^^^^^^^^^^^
The Bible; "For God so loved the world, that He gave His only
begotten son, that whoever believes in him should
not perish, but have eternal life." (John 3:16);
should you not believe in Jesus to have eternal life?
Answer No.4
^^^^^^^^^^^
Of course, we believe in Jesus for what he was and we do not
believe in what he was not. We Muslims believe Jesus was a Messiah;
"Spirit from God"; "Word of God"; the righteous Prophet as well as
Messenger of God and the son of Virgin Mary. But, we do not
believe Jesus was "the begotten son of God." The truth of the
matter is apostle John never ever wrote; Jesus was "the begotten"
son of God.
Please obtain a copy of the `Gideon Bible' from a Hotel or
Motel near you. It is distributed free since 1899, all over the
world, by The Gideon Society. In the beginning of this famous
Bible, John 3:16 is translated in 26 popular world languages. You
may be amazed to discover that in the English translation, the
editors have used the traditionally accepted term "His only
begotten son." Whereas, in several other languages the editors have
used the term "His unique son" or "His one of a kind son."
In 1992, when I discovered this textual variations, I wrote
letters to various universities in North America requesting them to
confirm the original Greek term used by John. Below is a copy of
the response received from The George Washington University:-
John 3:16 and John 1:18 each have the word `monogenes' in
Greek. This word ordinarily means "of a single kind". As
a result, "unique" is a good translation. The reason you
sometimes find a translation that renders the word as
"only begotten" has to do with an ancient heresy within
the church. In response to the Arian claim that Jesus was
made but not begotten, Jerome (4th century) translated
the Greek term `monogenes' into Latin as `unigenitus'
("only begotten").
Paul B. Duff, 22 April, 1992.
Professor Duff's response was based upon `Anchor Bible', volume 29,
page 13-14. The Greek term for "begotten" is `gennao' as found in
Mt.1:2, which John did not use.
Hot Tip: (precise and pertinent)
^^^^^^^^
Jesus said to Mary; "...go to my brethren, and say to them, I
ascend to my Father and your Father..." (John 20:17). This verse
demonstrates that the usage of term `Father' was purely
metaphorical. As for Jesus being a "unique son", he, unlike us,
was created without a physical Father.
***********************************************************
Question No.5
^^^^^^^^^^^^^
Jesus said: "Truly, truly. I say to you, unless one is born again,
he cannot see the kingdom of God." (John 3:3); I am
a "born again" Christian, are you a "born again" Muslim?
Answer No.5
^^^^^^^^^^^
The truth of the matter is apostle John did not use the phrase
"born again". The Greek text reveals, the phrase used by John
is "born from above". The Greek word used by John is `anothen'
(`ano' + `then'). `ano' means `above' and the suffix `then'
denotes `from'.
Hence, what Jesus said was "unless one is born from above,
he cannot see the kingdom of God." And, that sounds logical.
Since none of the living creature is "born from above",
no one can see the kingdom heaven during his life time.
The concept of being "born again" to see the kingdom of heaven
is an innovation to instill the concept of Baptism.
The same word `anothen' appears in the same Gospel and in the
same chapter in verse 31. Here the editors have translated the
word as "from above" and not "again".
This further supports the logic of Jesus having said;
"born from above".
To enter the Kingdom of Heaven one has to keep the Commandments.
God's distinguished Command known as the `Covenant of Circumcision'
(physically, "in the flesh of your foreskin") was an everlasting
Covenant (Compact,Treaty) between God and man. See Genesis 17:10-14.
Can an everlasting Treaty be abrogated or revoked unilaterally?
Did Jesus abrogate it? No. Jesus was circumcised in the flesh
(Luke 2:21). We, Muslim males, are circumcised.
Are the male Christians circumcised in the "flesh of their foreskins"?
If not, please read the following verse:-
Hot Tip:
^^^^^^^^
Jesus said; "Whoever then annuls (discards) one of the least of
these commandments, and so teaches others, shall be called least
in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever keeps and teaches them,
he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven." (Matt. 5:19).
**************************************************************
Question No.6
^^^^^^^^^^^^^
Jesus said; "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations,
baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the
Holy Spirit," (Matthew 28:19); does this not prove that the
`Doctrine of Trinity' and its present day formula was communicated
and promulgated by Jesus Christ himself?
Answer No.6
^^^^^^^^^^^
With all due respect, we tend to disagree in view of the following
compelling evidences:-
1. `Peake's Commentary on the Bible' published since 1919, is
universally welcomed and considered to be the standard reference
book for the students of the Bible. Commenting on the above
verse it records; "This mission is described in the language of the
church and most commentators doubt that the trinitarian formula was
original at this point in Mt.'s Gospel, since the NT elsewhere does
not know of such a formula and describes baptism as being performed
in the name of the Lord Jesus (e.g. Ac. 2:38, 8:16, etc.)."
2. Tom Harpur, author of several bestsellers and a former professor
of New Testament, writes in his book `For Christ's Sake'; "All but
the most conservative of scholars agree that at least the latter
part of this command was inserted later. The formula occurs nowhere
else in the New Testament, and we know from the only evidence
available (the rest of the New Testament) that the earliest Church
did not baptise people using these words - baptism was "into" or
"in" the name of Jesus alone."
3. The above command (authentic or otherwise) does not indicate
that the three names mentioned in the formula are or were, "co-
equal" in their status, as well as, were "co-eternal" in the time
frame, to conform with the acknowledged `Doctrine of Trinity'.
4. If the Father and His Son were both in "existence" from the Day
One, and no one was, a micro second before or after, and, no one
was "greater or lesser" in status, than why is one called the
Father and the other His begotten Son?
5. Did the act of "Begetting" take place?
If YES, where was the "Begotten Son" before the act?
If NO, why call him the "Begotten Son"?
Hot Tip:
^^^^^^^^
"And Peter said to them, `Repent, and let each of you be baptized
in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins;...'"
(Acts 2:38). It is most unlikely that apostle Peter would have
disobeyed the specific command of Jesus Christ for baptising in the
three names and baptized them in the name of Jesus Christ, alone.
******************************************************************
uestion No.7
^^^^^^^^^^^^^
Apostle John in his first Epistle, chapter 5 and verse 7 wrote:
"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father,
the Word, and the Holy Ghost, and these three are one.";
is this not a fair testimony to acknowledge the `Doctrine of
Trinity'?
Answer No.7
^^^^^^^^^^^
1. The text quoted does appear in the Kings James Version but has
been omitted by most of the editors of the recent versions e.g.
Revised Standard Version, New American Standard Bible, New English
Bible, Phillips Modern English Bible, because the quoted text does
not appear in the older Greek manuscripts.
2. Renowned historian Edward Gibbon calls the addition a "Pious
Fraud" in his famous history book `Decline and Fall of Roman
Empire'.
3. Peakes commentary on the subject reads; "The famous
interpolation after "three witnesses" is not printed even in RSVn,
and rightly. It cites the heavenly testimony of the Father, the
logos, and the Holy Spirit, but is never used in the early
trinitarian controversies. No respectable Greek MS contains it.
Appearing first in a late 4th-cent. Latin text, it entered the
Vulgate and finally the NT of Erasmus."
Hot Tip:
^^^^^^^^
Notwithstanding the above rejections, the verse that follows the
quoted text reads in KJV; "And there are three that bear witness in
earth, the spirit, and the water, and the blood; and these three
agree in one." (1John5:8). Are these three witnesses "co-equal"?
Can blood be substituted with water? Can water be regarded as the
same in any respect with the Spirit? Just as the spirit, the blood
and the water are three separate entities, so are the first three
witnesses, namely; the Father, the Son (Word, Logos) and the Holy
Spirit (Ghost).
*******************************************************************
Question No.8
^^^^^^^^^^^^^
Jesus said:"He who believes in the son has eternal life; but he who
does not obey the son shall not see life, but the wrath of God
abides on him." (John 3:36); are you not under the wrath of God for
not being a follower of Christ - a Christian, by belief?
Answer No.8
^^^^^^^^^^^
It is an interesting question. In fact, we Muslims should be asking
the question to you the followers of Christ. Do the vast majority
of Christians truthfully believe Christ for what he said he was,
and, truly understand his commands and obey them?
We believe, most of the followers who claim to be Christians do not
even understand the implications of calling their Leader or Lord;
"Christ". (The readers will understand what I mean by the last
sentence, once they go through the rest of the text).
Here is the answer to your question. The above verse has two parts.
`Belief' and `Obedience'.
On the subject of Belief in Christ, Jesus asked his disciples;
"But who do you say that I am? And Peter answered and said,
"The Christ of God." (Luke 9:20). Peter did not say God or a god.
We Muslims truly believe Jesus was "The Christ (al-Masih) of God".
The expression "The Christ of God" literally means;
"The one that was anointed by God himself".
Please go back in time and think.
God performed the ceremony of anointing (physically or spiritually)
and for that reason, Jesus became "The Christ of God".
Now may I please ask you a simple question. Who is greater and
exalted; the one who anointed, or, the one who got anointed?
Since God anointed Jesus, God is the greater and exalted between
the two, which we Muslims, do truly believe.
But surprisingly, the followers who say Jesus is "Christ", don't.
HOT TIP:
^^^^^^^
"...Thy holy Servant Jesus, whom Thou didst anoint,..."
(Acts 4:27 - New American Standard Bible).
This leaves no room for doubt that Jesus was a `Servant of God'.
Besides, there are other verses which declare Jesus; God's Servant.
----------------
Now let us go to the second part of the quoted verse; "obeying the
Christ". Please read the following verse and ask yourself a
question; have I obeyed?
"Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears my word, and believes Him
who sent me, has eternal life, and does not come into judgement,
but has passed out of death into life." John 5:24
Have I believed and placed my trust basically, fundamentally and
predominately in Him or in Jesus?
Hot Tip:
^^^^^^^^
Jesus said; "But I do not seek my glory; there is One who seeks and
judges." John 8:51. Who is this "One", who is not Jesus?
Have you basically, essentially and fundamentally glorified the
"One" or Jesus?
Please remember, the "One" will be the Judge on the Day of
Judgement and not Jesus. If you disbelieve or disobey the above
word of Jesus please read the verse quoted by you and then think
about the "wrath of God".
*********************************************************************
Question No.9
^^^^^^^^^^^^^
In the Book of Genesis 1:26, we read; "And God said, Let us make
man in our image, after our likeness..."; does not the use of terms
"us" and "our" prove that the God which created man was not a
singular entity, furthermore, does it not support the Johnannine
concept (John 1:3); all things came into being through Jesus?
Answer No.9
^^^^^^^^^^^
1. Below is an extract from a commentary for the above verse,
written by the editors of King James Version (The Hebrew-Greek Key
Study Bible, 6th edition):
"The Hebrew word for God is `Elohim' (430), a plural noun. In
Genesis 1:1, it is used in grammatical agreement with a singular
verb `bara' (1254), created. When plural pronouns are used, "Let us
make man in our image after our likeness," does it denote a plural
of number or the concept of excellence or majesty which may be
indicated in such a way in Hebrew? Could God be speaking to angels,
the earth, or nature thus denoting Himself in relation to one of
these? Or is this a germinal hint of a distinction in the divine
personality? One cannot be certain."
Having written "One cannot be certain", the editors try to advocate
the theory of Jesus, as the "essential (internal) unity of
Godhead."
2. The response to your question, as well as, to the commentators
remark; "One cannot be certain", lies not very far, but in the next
verse (Genesis 1:27), which reads; "And God created man in His own
image,..." This statement tells us that the actual act of creation
when performed, was performed by "Him" and in "His" image and not
by "Us" in "Our" image.
Hot Tip:
^^^^^^^^
As a closing conclusive argument, here is a statement of truth from
Jesus himself; "And he (Jesus) answered and said unto them, `Have
you not read, that He which made them at the beginning made them
male and female." (Matthew 19:4). This statement by Jesus also
negates the so called Johnannine concept put forward by you
(NOT by apostle John); "all things came into being through Jesus."
**********************************************************************
Question No.10
^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
In the Gospel of John, we find that eight days after his
resurrection, Jesus stood before his disciples and asked the
unbelieving Thomas to feel his hands and side, to verify the nail
marks and spear scar. After seeing the hands and the side, Thomas
said to Jesus; "My Lord and my God." If Jesus was not God, he would
have certainly reprimanded Thomas, but he did no such thing, does
this not prove, `Jesus was God'?
Answer No.10
^^^^^^^^^^^^
Please allow me quote from the `New American Standard Bible' the
entire text as it appears in Ch.20:27-28 from John's Gospel:
"Then he (Jesus) said to Thomas, "Reach here your finger, and
see my hands, and reach here your hand, and put it into my
side; and be not unbelieving, but believing." Thomas answered
and said to him, "My Lord and my God!"
1. Please observe the mark of exclamation (!) at the end of the
phrase. (Note: K.J.V. has removed the exclamation mark).
2. Please observe there was no question asked in the entire
narration. Hence, the text which reads "Thomas answered" is
inaccurate.
3. The last phrase "My Lord and my God!" was not an *answer* but an
outburst of *exclamation* by Thomas, having seen something
inexplicable and baffling. Often, we too cry out; "O' my God!"
when we see something totally bizarre or grotesque.
4. To prove that the above explanation is not my concocted theory,
below are the texts from two reputed versions of the Bible that
support this theory.
a. In the `New English Bible' it reads:
Thomas said, "My Lord and my God!"
b. In the `Phillips Modern English Bible' it reads:
"My Lord and my God!" cried Thomas.
HOT TIP:
^^^^^^^^
Apostle John writes, immediately after the discourse between Jesus
and Thomas; "Many other signs therefore Jesus also performed in the
presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but
these have been written that you may believe that Jesus is the
Christ..." If John had recognized the answer by Thomas to be a
testimony for the `Deity of Jesus' and the observed silence by
Jesus to be his acquiesce to such a testimony, then John would
have written "Jesus is the God" and not "Jesus is the Christ..."
*********************************************************************
Question No.11
^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
Apostle Matthew records that Jesus was worshipped by Magi that came
from the East (2:11); by the boat people (14:33); by Mary Magdalene
and the other Mary (28:9); and also by his disciples on a mountain
in Galilee (28:17). Since worshipping any one other than God is a
fundamental sin, why did not Jesus stop these people from
worshipping him, unless he was God himself?
Answer No.11
^^^^^^^^^^^^
1. For your information, none of the above worshipped Jesus. Nor,
did apostle Matthew record it so. According to the lexical aids to
the Bible, the proper Greek word for `worship' is `sebomai' (4576)
from the root `seb'. That word `sebomai' is used by apostle Matthew
in 15:9 where Jesus said; "But in vain do they worship me,..."
The Greek word used by the apostle in the above quotes is
`prosekunesan' and not `sebomai'. `Prosekunesan' comes from
`proskuneo' (4352), which literally means bow, crouch, crawl, kneel
or prostrate. If the apostle wanted to convey; `Jesus was
worshipped', he would have used the word `sebomai' which he did
not.
2. To prove the point further, in `New English Bible' the
translations of the quoted verses read; `bowed to the ground' in
(2:11); `fell at his feet' in (14:33); `falling prostrate before
him' in (28:9), and `fell prostrate before him' in (28:17).
3. The question of Jesus stopping them for worshipping, therefore
does not arise, because they simply bowed or prostrated to him.
HOT TIP:
^^^^^^^^
Apostle Mark records in 10:17-18; "And as he (Jesus) was setting
out on a journey, a man ran up to him and knelt before him and
began asking him, "Good Teacher, what shall I do to inherit the
eternal life?" And Jesus said to him, "Why do you call me good?
No one is good except God alone." It sounds inharmonious and
inconsistent that a person who even refuses to be called "good"
could have allowed any one to worship him.
Since, no one is good except "God alone", should not Christians
be worshipping directly to that solitary God to whom Jesus himself
prayed more than a dozen times, according to the Gospels?
**********************************************************************
Note: The following is written in the language that is intended
as an invitation (Daw'ah) to Christians, from their biblical
perspective.
Question No.12
^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
When prophet Moses asked God; What was His name? What shall he
say to his people? From behind the Burning Bush God replied; "I AM
THAT I AM." God also asked Moses to say to the sons of Israel: "I
AM hath sent me unto you." Exodus 3:14.
When confronted by Jews; "Jesus said unto them, `Verily, verily, I
say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am." (John 8:58 K.J.V.). Jesus
also said; "I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your
sins: for if ye believe not that I am (he), ye shall die in your
sins. (John 8:24, K.J.V.). Does that not prove, Jesus existed
before his birth; he was the One who spoke to Moses from behind the
Burning Bush; and if you do not believe that, you will die in your
sins?
Note: The word `he' in the verse above as well as in the Hot Tip
below, appear in the italic types in King James Version (K.J.V.).
Since I cannot use italics on e-mail, I have placed the word `he'
within parenthesis.
Answer No.12
^^^^^^^^^^^^
Your question is based upon a simple conjecture. Even the editors
of K.J.V. insinuate that fact. Under the foot note of Exodus 3:14
the editors write; "Jesus probably alluded to this name of God in
John 8:58, `Before Abraham was, I AM." The use of phrase "probably
alluded" clearly indicates it is not an established reality.
My dear friend, a surmise can never take place of (replace) an
acknowledged statement. This is what Jesus said; "...I am (he),
and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me,
I speak these things." (John 8:28). God of Moses that claimed "I AM
THAT I AM" had no instructor or tutor, and, needed no tutoring. If
God had an instructor or an educator, then what would you call that
entity? God's mentor or boss??
As for the existence of Jesus before his birth, please remember
Jesus was anointed by God before he was born. Hence, he was called
Christ (Messiah). Besides Jesus, there were others who were either
anointed, consecrated or made holy, before their births. (see Ps.
89:20, Is. 45:1, 61:1; 1 Sam. 24:6). God did take a solemn covenant
from Novah, Abraham, Moses, Jesus - son of Mary, and Muhammad
before they were sent, reveals the Qur'an.
Bible records, God came to prophet Jeremiah and said to him;
"Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, and before you were
born I consecrated you; I have appointed you a prophet to the
nations." Jeremiah 1:5.
I have question for you. How would you explain this ensuing
statement? Jesus said to Jews; "Your father Abraham rejoiced
to see my day, and he saw it, and was glad." (John 8:56)
HOT TIP:
^^^^^^^^
When Jews were doubtful about the identity of a particular blind
beggar who had been healed by Jesus, the blind beggar - who was no
more blind, kept saying; "I am (he)" (John 9:9, K.J.V.). Does that
make the blind beggar, God! Further more, the beggar when
questioned about Jesus who had healed him, replied to Jews; "And he
said, "He is a prophet." (John 9:17).
Question No.13
^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
Apostle Mark records in 16:19; "...He (Jesus) was received up
into heaven, and sat down at the right hand of God." The question
is, who can have such an unparalleled privilege and distinction,
besides his own begotten Son? Is there anyone else who has been
elevated to that station, in any other scripture?
Answer No.13
^^^^^^^^^^^^
1. Are you aware of the fact that there are two versions of
Mark's Gospel? One is called the shorter version and other, the
longer version. The shorter version, which ends at verse 8, does
not contain the above verse.
2. One of the two great achievements of an eminent biblical
critic of the nineteenth century, Lobegott Friedrich Konstantin Von
Tischendorf, was the historical discovery of the oldest known Bible
manuscript `Codex Sinaiticus' from St. Catherine's Monastery in Mt.
Sinai. The most damaging piece of evidence that Tischendorf
discovered in this 5th century document was that the gospel of Mark
ended at 16:8. In other words, the last 12 verses (Mark 16:9 to 20)
were "injected" sometime after the 5th century. Clement of
Alexandria and Origen never quoted these verses. Later on, it was
also discovered that the said 12 verses, wherein lies the various
accounts of "Resurrected Jesus", do not appear in codices Syriacus,
Vaticanus and Bobiensis. Today, in many of the revised versions of
the Bible, the said twelve verses appear within parentheses.
Tischendorf also discovered that John's gospel was heavily
reworked. For example, verses starting from John 7:53 to 8:11 are
not to be found in codices Sinaiticus or Vaticanus. Similarly, a
verse from the gospel of Luke that speaks of Peter running to the
tomb, stooping and looking in and finding it empty and marvelling
at what had happened is not to be found in the ancient manuscripts.
(For detailed information please read `Secrets of Mount Sinai' by
James Bentley, Orbis, London, 1985).
3. Peake's Commentary on the Bible records; "It is now generally
agreed that 9-20 are not an original part of Mk. They are not found
in the oldest MSS, and indeed were apparently not in the copies
used by Mt. and Lk. A 10th-cent. Armenian MS ascribes the passage
to Aristion, the presbyter mentioned by Papias (ap.Eus.HE III,
xxxix, 15)."
HOT TIP:
^^^^^^^^
The Book of Revelation (symbolic and obscure writings of uncertain
authorship), records in 3:21 that Jesus sat down with his Father on
his Father's throne. You write, based upon injected verse; Jesus
sat down at the right hand side of God. Which one do you believe?
*******************************************************************
Question No.14
^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
In the Epistle of Paul to Romans, it reads; "that if you
confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart
that God raised him from the dead, you shall be saved; for
with the heart man believes, resulting in righteousness,
and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation."
(Roman 10:9-10, NASB). The salvation is assured to us Christians
who confess with our mouth and heart; Jesus Christ to be our Lord.
What do Muslims have for their salvation?
Answer No.14
^^^^^^^^^^^^
This is a preferred verse with the evangelic missionaries. It is
one of the bases of the Christianity propagated by Paul and needs
to be addressed in detail and from various perspectives.
1. This is a quotation from one of the Epistles (letters) written
by Paul. While reading a passage from an Epistle one has to bear in
mind that these letters when written by the author, were a sort of
discourse containing religious instructions and admonitions, and,
were not intended to form a part and parcel of the canonical
Scripture.
2. To substantiate the above claim, please read 1 Corin 7:25-26
and 7:40. Here Paul writes; "I give an opinion"; "in my opinion"
and "I think" (twice). Whereas, Jesus - the prophet of God,
admitted; "...and I do nothing on my own initiative, but I speak
these things as the Father taught me." (John 8:28). One has to
differentiate "my opinion" and "my thought" from the "inspired" or
the divinely "tutored" document.
3. In 2 Corin 12:16, Paul - a zealous persecutor of the disciples
that overnight became a fervent propagator of `Christianity', makes
a perplexing statement; "...crafty fellow that I am, I took you in
by deceit." Jesus was a righteous prophet propagating the `Kingdom
of God'. His mission was, alike every other Jewish prophet, to
glorify God alone.
4. Imagine, you are at a crossroad. There are three signs.
Paul transcribes; Take the Left turn to reach the Destination.
Jesus transcribes; Take the Right turn. The Old Testaments
transcribes; Take the Right turn. Which way should you be headed if
you wish to reach the Destination with certainty? Please bear this
viewpoint in mind, while comparing various passages from the Bible.
5. Now let us go to Roman 10:9-10, the verses quoted by you in
the above question. Please continue reading the succeeding verses,
which say; "For the Scripture says, `Whoever believes in Him will
not be disappointed.' For there is no distinction between Jew and
Greek; for the same Lord is Lord of all, abounding in riches for
^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
all who call upon Him; for `Whoever will call upon the name of the
Lord will be saved." (Roman 10:11-13).
Note: The editors of the New Testament have created confusion by
translating the Greek word `Theos' (meaning, God) as "Lord". And,
the Greek word `Kurios' (meaning, Master, Owner, Head of a house)
as "Lord", as well. For those who consider Jesus to be God, it may
not make any difference, but for the rest it does.
6. To resolve the dilemma as to who is this "the same Lord" who
is the Lord of Jews, of Greeks and of all; let us go to verses
3:29-30 in the same Epistle. It reads; "Or is God the God of Jews
only? Is He not the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also-if
indeed God is one- and He will justify the circumcised by faith and
the uncircumcised through faith." Jews never accepted Jesus as
their Prophet or Messiah, leave alone accepting him as their Lord
(Master) or as their Lord (God). So, "Lord Jesus" is out of the
picture, leaving "Lord the God" to be the "one God" of all.
7. To answer your specific question, the verse above reads;
"Whoever will call upon the name of the Lord (Lord of all) will be
saved." We Muslims call upon the name of that Almighty God, the God
of all, who pronounced His Commands to Adam, Noah, Abraham,
Ishmael, Isaac, Jacob, Moses, David, Solomon, Jesus, Muhammad and
many others (peace be upon all the prophets).
8. BTW, the verses that you have originally quoted has one very
portentous underlying theme which you probably might have over
looked. It says; "and (if you) believe in your heart that God
raised him from the dead, you shall be saved." This sentence
conveys there were two separate entities:
a. One called Jesus, who was dead and lying motionless in a tomb.
b. One called God, who was alive and able to perform acts.
The entity (b) raised the entity (a) that was in an agony.
"And God raised him up again, putting an end to the agony of
death..." Acts 2:24.
I hope you will henceforth recognize "the dead" and "the alive" to
be two distinct entities and "un-equal", whenever you think of the
"Risen Jesus".
9. Would it not be an unfair practise on part of the Almighty God
to have sent His son as a "Saviour to all" thousands of years after
Adam. Did not that deprive those born before the Christian Era of
"the easy way out" to the Salvation? God cannot be unfair. He is a
Righteous God. May be the entire concept is an Innovation.
10. Tom Harpur, a former professor of New Testament and an
Anglican Minister writes; "Perhaps I am lacking in piety or some
basic instinct, but I know I am not alone in finding the idea of
Jesus' death as atonement for the sins of all humanity on one level
bewildering and on the other morally repugnant. Jesus never to my
knowledge said anything to indicate that forgiveness from God could
only be granted `after' or `because of' the cross." (For Christ's
Sake, p.75).
HOT TIP:
^^^^^^^^
"And there is no other God besides Me, A righteous God and a
Saviour; There is none except Me. `Turn to Me, and be saved, all
the ends of the earth; For I am God, and there is no other." Isaiah
45:21-22. (please also read Hosea 13:4). When God said; "all the
ends of the earth" He righteously meant it to be so. The era of
"cross" should make no difference.
BTW, if you truly accept the end part of the quoted Isaiah, you
have accepted the first half of the `Confession of Islamic Faith'
called "Shahadah".
******************************************************************
Question No.15
^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
From the prologue of John's Gospel, I have a very
valid and legitimate three part question:-
(a) Was not Jesus God from the beginning?
Verse upholding (a); In the beginning was the Word,
and the Word was with God,
and the Word was God. (John 1:1)
(b) Were not all things made through Jesus??
Verses upholding (b); He was in the beginning with God.
All things came into being through him;
and apart from him nothing came into being
that has come into being. (John 1:2-3)
(c) Was not Jesus made flesh and dwelt among us???
Verse upholding (c); And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us,
and we beheld his glory,
glory as of the only begotten from the Father,
full of grace and truth. (John 1:14)
Answer No.15
^^^^^^^^^^^^
This three part question is so often repeated, collectively
or individually, that I will try to answer them (God-willing), from
various perspectives. For an uncomplicated comprehension, I am
going to separate the three part question into three separate
questions. In this number fifteen, I will deal with part (a) above.
1. The verse insinuates "Jesus was God from the beginning" because
Christians have, for the last numerous generations, embraced the
concept of SUBSTITUTING the word "Word" (Greek term `Logos') with
"Jesus". John did not write "Jesus". It is a SUBSTITUTION.
2. One can only SUBSTITUTE (of course with admissible logic), the
original term *IF* the LITERAL translation of the used term fails
to reconcile with the rest of the text. Unfortunately, as you will
soon discover, the situation here is the other way around.
3. Please read the last two lines from (a) with the SUBSTITUTION.
It reads; "and Jesus was with God and Jesus was God."
How can Jesus be "with" God and "was" God, as well?
It defies the logic. The SUBSTITUTION creates an enigmatic dilemma
to which the Christian scholars have yet to find an answer.
4. The norm of accepting the SUBSTITUTION has been so deep rooted
that no believing Christian scholar has sincerely attempted to find
out what in reality is the LITERAL translation. Let us do it
together. The Greek term `Logos' is derived from the root word
`Lego' meaning `to speak'. The literal translation of `Logos' is
`something spoken or thought'. The verification of the above
translation is simple. Please pick up your English Dictionary and
look for the word `Decalogue'. Surprised! It reads; `The Ten
Commandments'. (deka=ten; logous=commands). Now please flip a few
more pages of your dictionary and go to the word `Logos'. Please
look for the word origin. In my pocket `Oxford Dictionary' it
reads; "[Gk, = reason, discourse, (rarely) word]."
5. Having discovered the LITERAL translation of the word "Logos"
used by apostle John, let us read (a):
In the beginning was the `spoken word, command',
and the `spoken word, command' was with God,
and the `spoken word, command' was Divine. (John 1:1)
6. The LITERAL translation is not only logical but it coincides
perfectly with the prologue of the Book of Genesis. "In the
beginning God created the heavens and the earth." "And the God
said, Let there be light; and there was light." (Genesis 1:1 and 3)
^^^^^
7. You may now ask, why did I translate "Divine" instead of "God"
in the last line?. The answer is based upon the usage of Greek
grammar. In the second line, the phrase used by John for "God" is
`ho theo', meaning `the God'. In the last line it is simply `theo',
the definitive article `the' is not used. Why? Because, it is a
predicate of the subject `ho theo'. The predicate is used to denote
the nature, quality, attribute or property of the subject. Here the
in this instance the nature of the God's spoken command was Divine.
8. In `New translation of the Bible' (1922) by the famous Dr. James
Moffatt, it reads; "the Logos was Divine." And, also in `The
Complete Bible - An American Translation' (Smith-Goodspeed) and
`The Authentic New Testament' by Hugh J. Schonfield.
Please look for No. 16 and 17 for answers to (b) and (c) above.
HOT TIP:
^^^^^^^^
Paul wrote; "...if any man is preaching to you a Gospel contrary to
which you received, let him be accursed (anathema)." Gal. 1:9.
*******************************************************************
Question No.16
^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
From the prologue of John's Gospel, I have a very
valid and legitimate three part question:-
(a) Was not Jesus God from the beginning?
Verse upholding (a); In the beginning was the Word,
and the Word was with God,
and the Word was God. (John 1:1)
(b) Were not all things made through Jesus??
Verses upholding (b); He was in the beginning with God.
All things came into being through him;
and apart from him nothing came into being
that has come into being. (John 1:2-3)
(c) Was not Jesus made flesh and dwelt among us???
Verse upholding (c); And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us,
and we beheld his glory,
glory as of the only begotten from the Father,
full of grace and truth. (John 1:14)
Answer No.16
^^^^^^^^^^^^
Below is a response to part (b) above.
Part (a) has been replied under FAQ number 15.
Part (c) will be replied under FAQ number 17.
1. The opening word of John 1:2 in the Greek text is `houtos'
(3778), which translates `the same'. The usage of word "He" in the
above quote, is based upon the traditional concept of SUBSTITUTING
the Greek term "Logos" with "Jesus", as explained in FAQ 15.
2. In the King James Version, it reads; "The same was in the
beginning with God", which supports the above clarification.
3. Based upon the LITERAL translation of the word "Logos" as
explained in FAQ 15, the verse should read; "The same (i.e. the
spoken divine word, command) was in the beginning with the God."
This LITERAL translation coincides with the opening of the Old
Testament. (Genesis 1:3,6,11,14,20 & 24).
4. In John 1:3 above, the Greek word used for "him" is `autos'
(846), which means; her, it (-self); (self-) the same; (him-,
my-, thy-,) self; etc. If one was to continue the LITERAL
translation from the beginning, the verse should read;
All things came into being through it;
and apart from it nothing came into being
that has come into being. (John 1:3)
Here "it" stands for "the spoken divine word, command."
5. For some reason, one was to quote Colossians 1:16 which reads;
"For in Him all things were created, both in the heaven and on
earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or
rulers or authorities - all things have been created through Him
and for Him." And, go on contending that in the above letter by
Paul, "Him" refers to "Jesus", and his/her beliefs are valid,
please let him/her read the following.
6. In `The Oxford Companion to the Bible", edited by Bruce M.
Metzger and Michael D. Coogan, published by the Oxford University
Press, on page 127, it reads; "The Pauline authorship of Colossians
has often been challenged over the last 160 years. The grounds for
this questioning concern the language and style of the letter; more
recently it has been argued that there are major differences
between Colossians and the theology of the main Pauline letters,
particularly in relation to the person and cosmic work of Christ,
the Church as the body of Christ, and early Christian tradition."
7. If all things, including men and women were created through
Jesus, then the righteous Jesus would not have told the Pharisees
that from the beginning "God" created man and woman. (Matt. 19:4).
8. However, if the person is unwilling to write-off the so called
canonical letter by Paul on the basis of the above two
observations, please ask him/her to read the quoted scripture below
which unequivocally tells us that "God" created man, made the earth
and stretched out the heavens with HIS OWN HANDS.
HOT TIP:
^^^^^^^^
"It is I who made the earth, and created man upon it. I stretched
out the heavens with My hands, And I ordained all their host."
(Isaiah 45:12). Please also read Psalms 147-148, where the Psalmist
bids Zion to "Praise your (their) God", who has done multitude of
things and created; the heavens, the heights, His angels, His
hosts, Sun, Moon, Stars and the waters that are above the heavens,
by His own Command.
***************************************************************
Question No.17
^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
From the prologue of John's Gospel, I have a very
valid and legitimate three part question:-
(a) Was not Jesus God from the beginning?
Verse upholding (a); In the beginning was the Word,
and the Word was with God,
and the Word was God. (John 1:1)
(b) Were not all things made through Jesus??
Verses upholding (b); He was in the beginning with God.
All things came into being through him;
and apart from him nothing came into being
that has come into being. (John 1:2-3)
(c) Was not Jesus made flesh and dwelt among us???
Verse upholding (c); And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us,
and we beheld his glory,
glory as of the only begotten from the Father,
full of grace and truth. (John 1:14)
Answer No.17
^^^^^^^^^^^^
Below is a response to part (c) above.
Parts (a) and (b) have been replied under FAQ 15 and 16.
1. To comprehend what apostle John wrote in (c) above, one has to
read what John wrote ten verses earlier, i.e. in John 1:4.
According to the LITERAL translation, in that verse, John wrote;
"In it was life; and the life was the light of men."
2. As demonstrated earlier the word "it" stands for
"Logos" (the divine command that was in the beginning with the
God). Consequently, "In it (in the God's command was life); and
that life was the light (the guidance, enlightenment) for men."
3. I have rendered "light" as the guidance and enlightenment,
because in 1:9 John wrote;
"There was the true light which, coming into the world,
enlightens every man".
4. Unfortunately, "And the light shines in the darkness; and the
darkness did not comprehend it (him)." (John 1:5).
Note: In either case; the word "it" which stands for God's command,
or "him" which stands for Jesus, makes sense.
5. Going back to (c) above;
"And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld
his glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full
of grace and truth." (John 1:14).
What the apostle LITERALLY meant was;
"And the Logos (the God's command, which was from the
beginning with God, wherein was the life)
became flesh, and dwelt among us,..."
6. Briefly, the embodiment in flesh was of "Logos" - the God's
command, and NOT of the God. The conception of Jesus within the
womb of his mother, Virgin Mary, was in reality made possible by
an act of God's command - the "Logos". Jesus was neither God nor
the physical incarnation of God.
7. The entire text which reads; "and we be held his glory, the
glory as of the only begotten of the Father" is written within
parentheses in the Kings James Version. Hence, it is considered
as the editor's enhanced notes or addendum.
8. As for the true meaning of the original term used by John in his
Gospel, for the mistranslated phrase "the only begotten", please see
the earlier answers.
HOT TIP:
^^^^^^^^
To those who prefer to contend;
(a) "and the Word (Jesus) was *with* God" (John 1:1).
(b) "He (Jesus) was in the beginning *with* God" (John 1:2).
(c) "And the Word (Jesus) *became* flesh" (John 1:14)
they have no recourse but to admit that it was either at the
*beginning* or after the act of *becoming* happened, "Jesus" who
was "with" God or "became" flesh, had to be either an
additional, other, different, distinct, or dissimilar entity than
the God. Now, having no way to retreat, please read the following:
"No one can serve two masters;..." Matthew 6:24
If you wish choose the ONE and the only Master, please read;
"Now to the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only God,
be honour and glory forever and ever. Amen." 1 Timothy 1:17
Can any one deny; "Jesus" who dwelt among us, was "visible"!
************************************************************************
Question No.18
^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
While declaring Christ's superiority to the Angels, in the
Epistle to the Hebrews, God said to Jesus:
1. Thou art My Son, Today I have begotten Thee. 1:5
2. Let all the Angels worship you. 1:6
3. Sit on My right hand, until I make thine enemies
thy footstool. 1:13
How can you deny these "Words of God"?
Answer No.18
^^^^^^^^^^^^
1. Before I answer your question, please tell me who was the author
of this letter (Epistle) to the Hebrews from which you have
submitted the above "Words of God"? Before one places his/her
confidence in the quoted texts and builds up the faith, it is
equitable and fair to first identify the authorship of the letter.
2. Have you noticed that the name of the author, which is
invariably mentioned in the title (heading) of every Epistle, is
conspicuously missing in the Hebrews. To know the reason why,
please read the followings:
3. The King James Version is supposed to be the most conservative
biblical version. The editors of K.J.V. (New Revised and Updated
6th, the Hebrew/Greek Key Study, Red Letter Edition), in their
introduction to the Epistle to the Hebrews, write:
"The author of the Book of Hebrews is unknown. Martin Luther
suggested that Apollos was the author...Tertullian said that
Hebrews was a letter of Barnabas...Adolf Harnack and J. Rendel
Harris speculated that it was written by Priscilla (or
Prisca). William Ramsey suggested that it was done by Philip.
However, the traditional position is that the Apostle Paul
wrote Hebrews...Eusebius believed that Paul wrote it, but
Origen was not positive of Pauline authorship."
4. The traditional position that "Apostle Paul wrote Hebrews" is
seriously undermined by the fact that the Epistle to Hebrews does
not begin with his personal name. For your information, each and
every other Epistle of Paul begins with his personal name. The
Hebrews begin with God's name. Further, Paul had specified that
his letters will bear his signature.
5. The Epistle to the Hebrews is not listed in the 6th century list
of the manuscripts called Codex Claromon. This leads to the
suspicion that it could have been written at a later date.
6. The critics who have studied the text of Hebrews suggest, it is
not likely the work of Paul. It was written much later to prove the
superiority of God's Son (Jesus) over God's Prophets (Abraham and
others). In other words, the document was created by a pseudo
author to prove the superiority of Christianity over Judaism.
7. All the three quoted passages from the Hebrews are in fact the
direct quotes from Psalms. (Psalms 2:7; 97:7; 110:1). To say that
the Psalmist had written these Songs "about Jesus" and not "about
characters from their history" needs hard evidence, which is not to
be found in the Psalms. Lack of such evidences have lead the bible
critics to question:
Were the prophecies of the Old Testament fulfilled by the
history, or, the history was written to fulfil the
prophecies? (May I add, specially when the authorship is
questioned, not by the outsiders, but the insiders! KJV).
HOT TIP:
^^^^^^^
Al-Hamdulillah (Praise be to "the God"), you yourself have
indirectly admitted, by submitting the above three quotations that
there is only ONE who is:
1. The Eternal 2. The Worthy of Prayers 3. The Supreme.
Your quotes and my submissions:
1. Thou art My Son, Today I have begotten Thee.
^^^^^
Yesterday, the Son did not exist. "The God" alone is "The Eternal".
^^^^^^^^^
2. Let all the Angels worship you.
If you believe, since Angels worshipped Jesus, `Jesus is Worthy of
Prayers' then in the Garden of Gethsemane, Jesus "fell on his face
and prayed, saying, `My Father, if it is possible, let this cup
pass from me." (Matthew 26:39). Hence, the Heavenly Father - "The
God" is "The Worthy of Prayers" from Jesus, Angels and every one.
3. Sit on My right hand,....
Does not the above sentence clearly demonstrate (manifest) that
"The God" who articulated or commanded the above, was sitting on
the "Supreme Throne" and Jesus was standing and waiting to be told
to sit down, next to him? "The God" is "THE SUPREME".
Note: All the prophets, including Jesus used to "fall on their
^^^^^ faces" like we Muslims do, while praying.
See; Abraham, Genesis 17:3; Job, Job 1:20; Moses and Aaron,
Numbers 16:22; Jesus, Mt.26:39.
Question No.19
^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
Below is a question from Brother Muhammad Ali Siddiqui