13. The Pre-Cross Water Baptism Rite That Jesus Practiced

Little is made of the fact that Jesus practiced a rite of water baptism before he went to the cross. To speak lightly about the subject is good theology, but it is not good Bible teaching. The Gospel of John records a cluster of verses supporting good Bible teaching about the facts.

John 3:22- After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judaea:
and there he tarried with them and baptized.

John 3:26- And they came unto John, and said unto him, Rabbi, he that was with thee
beyond Jordan, to whom thou barest witness, behold, the same baptizeth, and all
men come to him.

John 4:1,2- When therefore the Lord knew how the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made
and baptized more disciples than John, (Though Jesus himself baptizeth not, but
his disciples)…..

The context makes it clear, that Jesus and John were both practicing a rite of water baptism at the same time, in the same general area. "And John also was baptizing in Aenon near Salem…." John 3:23. In the context, there is not a hint that John and Jesus were engaged in some sort of competition. In the comparison below, we can see that their ministries linked together in the same program and plan:

The Same Calling John claims a commission from God: '..he that sent me to baptize..' John 1:33 Jesus also claims a heavenly commission : '..the Father hath sent me.' John 5:36. Jesus also confirms John's ministry as from heaven. Cf. Matt 21:23-46 'The baptism of John, whence was it ? from heaven , or of men ?' Matt. 21:25

To The Same People John states '..that he [Christ] should be made manifest to Israel..'

John 1:31 Jesus claims '..I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.'

Matt. 15:24 cf. Matt. 10:5,6; Rom. 15:8; John 20:21

With The Same Message Both engaged the people of Israel about Justice and Mercy, the Fire of Judgment and the Fragrance of Forgiveness, Doom, Gloom and Grace and Glory.

"Repent ye: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand" cf. Matt. 3:2; 4:17,23; 9:35; 10:5,6 They were like two voices in stereo.

Practicing and Preaching The Same Baptism This is emphasized concerning John in the following four scriptures : Mark 1:4; Luke 3:3; Acts 10:37 & 13:24. Notice the wording.

"John did baptize in the wilderness , and preach the baptism of repentance' We are all mostly aware, that John practiced a water ritual called baptism. Not all have grasped the significance that John ( in these four references ) preaches a water ritual called baptism.

Neither have many become aware that Jesus also practiced and preached this same water ritual called baptism, especially before the cross.

The Identity of This Same Baptism Today, the question needs to raised again : John 3:25-

"Then there arose a question between some of John's disciples and the Jews about
purifying."

The details concerning this discussion about purifying involves not just Jesus' practice of baptizing but Jesus is baptizing/purifying in such a fashion, to those bringing up the question, that a claim is made that all men come to him. John defuses this seemingly growing abnormal situation, by stating that all is going according to plan. John shows that he was before Christ, but not the Christ, he is like a friend of the bridegroom, not the bridegroom. Jesus must increase and John must decrease. John 3:27-30

Within this context, one must be aware that water baptism is identified as a ceremony, a ritual of purification. Cf. John 2:6. Hebrews 9:8-14 ; Luke 11:38 The KJV translates baptism as a washing in the Lukan reference. Paul is urged to be baptized, and wash away ( his )thy sins. Acts 22:16 This indicates that this rite of water baptism is a ceremonial purification. It is likened to a cleansing, a washing away of the unclean. So, the biblical connection that water baptism has in this context is to purification, a washing and cleansing. This same baptism includes then, the idea of cleansing and purification, a confession of sins ( Matt. 3:6, Mk 1:5 ) repentance and the remission of sins.

"Christian Baptism" We should all be aware that the Lord commanded water baptism after the cross and resurrection. Cf. Matt. 28:19-20; Mk 16:15-16 Many teach therefore, that "Christian Baptism" began after the cross and resurrection, on the day of Pentecost, as found in Acts 2. Along with this idea is the teaching that the church, the Body of Christ, with him as Head, also began at/on Pentecost. This is theology of man and is a rational judgment call.

The general arguments for "Christian Baptism" are: Christ commanded his followers (the apostles and disciples) to baptize others. They were obedient and did baptize. Those who became believers were commanded to submit to water baptism as obedient followers. This argument is based on the commands of Christ after the cross and resurrection. But this same scenario is just as applicable to the pre-cross baptisms : These baptisms before the cross were commanded by Christ. Those disciples did not take up this task by their own decision. The context in John 3:26, indicates Jesus was baptizing at a rate that "all men come to him" and conversely not coming to John. John 4:1 tells "how the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John."

The question then is this : If Christ commanded a rite of water baptism before the cross, Would this not be 'Christian Baptism' ? This pre-cross baptism meets all the criteria of the post-cross and resurrection baptisms - Christ commanded, apostles obeyed, new believers submitted.

Furthermore, if this is not true, why were not the many followers of the Lord Jesus, who were waiting for the power from on high, re-baptized in water with real "Christian Baptism"? If the church had a beginning at Pentecost, if "Christian Baptism" had its beginning there also, then, none of the twelve, none of the 70, none of the 120 from the upper room prayer meeting, experienced it. There is no indication that they were in need of submitting to this 'new' ritual as a doorway into a new institution.

Consider Andrew, who was one of two disciples of John the Baptist in the context of John 1:35-42. If so, then, he was a baptized disciple and follower of John. He became a disciple and then, an Apostle of Christ. Cf. Matt. 10:2 Now, as an Apostle of Christ, there is no indication or evidence that there was a re-baptism in a rite of water baptism in order to become a disciple or Apostle of Christ, having already experienced a rite of water baptism through John's ministry.

But, neither, is there a shred of evidence or any sign or indication that Andrew must now submit to another rite of water baptism, on Pentecost, in order to have experienced a "Christian Baptism" and become a member of a new organization called the "Christian Church". And, if he did not receive a baptism on Pentecost, it would seem that he never received "Christian Baptism". Or, he did receive a baptism, acceptable to Christ and equal to and equivalent to any so-called "Christian Baptism".

In this case of Andrew, we have John's baptism of Andrew, accepted by Christ, while he, the Lord, required no new rite of water for Andrew to submit to, in order to be one of his disciples before the cross. Nor does Andrew submit to another ceremony of ritual after the cross, in order to be a receptor of so-called "Christian Baptism" that is supposedly having its christening operation starting on Pentecost.

It is not strange then, for these Apostles/disciples of the Lord, to not question the Lord when he gave commandment to go and baptize. This indeed, was not new. (Re-read the preceding pages.) They had been very busy following and obeying their Lord, by baptizing new disciples, causing the Lord possible suspicion and rising opposition, from the Lord's enemies, such as the Pharisees ( in this context) causing the Lord to leave Judaea and depart again to Galilee.

An Addendum

Question : Was there a gap of time between the pre-cross baptisms and the post-cross baptisms ? There are few hints of baptisms being performed during the period of time between the early records of Matt. 3 and John 3-4 with reference to John's and Jesus' acts of baptisms and the post-cross acts of baptism found in early Acts. Why ? Given the time, effort and claims given by many teachers of the Bible to the ceremonies and rituals of a water baptism, why is there a seemingly void in the records to some kind of evidence that it had not fallen out of favor and use during the heart of the Lord's time, teachings and testimony ?

Matthew's Gospel may give us a hint. There seems to be a division in Matthew 4:17, marking the beginning of the Lord's ministry after his baptism and temptation. "From that time Jesus began to preach…." This was the beginning of a preaching/teaching/healing/baptizing campaign for the Lord. But actually, no real mention is made concerning baptism. We assume it being performed, or do we ? In Matthew 16:21, we find another line of demarcation. "From that time forth began Jesus to shew unto his disciples, how that he must go unto Jerusalem, and suffer many things of the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and be raised again the third day.

We see that the Lord has just charged his disciples that they should tell no man that he was Jesus the Christ. Matt. 16:20 We run into this kind of charge again in Matt. 17:9, where he charges them, saying, Tell the vision to no man, until the son of man be risen again from the dead. Remember that John the Baptist claimed as one of the reasons for baptizing, was in order to make Christ manifest to Israel. John 1:31 The rite of water baptism was a key to making Christ manifest to Israel.

During the ministry of the Lord Jesus, precautionary measures were taken to balance his ministry with positive affirmations of faith that came from the rising numbers of followers. These precautionary measures were to help tone down the great acclaim that came his way through his teachings, preaching and healings. His popularity was causing alarm in the leaders of Israel. There was growing opposition with developing plans to eliminate him. He told his benefactors, 'tell no man' . cf. Matt. 8:4;9:30; 12:16; 17:9

He did this in order to defuse the increasing opposition, before total rejection by the leaders, the crowds who listened to those same leaders, and with his popularity rising to the point that there was radical action to be taken by these same leaders to bring him (Jesus) before the Romans to quiet him in a more permanent fashion.

The significance of the last two references ( Matt. 16:20, 17:9 ) is that instead of Jesus telling those who were his benefactors from his ministry to stop telling about him, he now tells those who were his chosen witnesses to now stop telling anyone that he (Jesus) was the Christ. This certainly amounts to a command to stop preaching, teaching and baptizing in order to make him (Jesus) manifest to Israel. There is a direct connection with the witness to the Christ/Messiah and the preaching/teaching ministry of the Apostles which included an activity of water baptism.

When the witnessing ceased, so did the water rite cease. When the command is given to stop making witness that Jesus is the Christ, all watery rituals ceased also. This watery witness did not start again until after the cross and resurrection, when again on Pentecost, there was a great witness to Jesus as the Christ, " God hath made that same Jesus. Whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ". Acts 2:36 It was on this day that the prophecy of the last O.T. prophet, John the Baptist, began to come true. Peter explains this phenomena as, this Jesus, being exalted and receiving from the Father the promise of the Holy Ghost, he (Jesus) hath shed forth this, which you now see and hear. Acts 2:33

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