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"Identifying The Gospel (OF) The Circumcision--The Gospel (OF) The Un-Circumcision"

The circumcising of the male penis was not even mentioned in the scriptures, until Gen 17:10-27; 1900 BC, or approximately 2,100 years (after) the formation of Adam and Eve, at Gen Ch 1. And there it was said to be "A Covenant" made solely between a newly saved 75 year old (Gentile) named Abrahm, and a small band of his (Gentile) kinfolk.

As we shall later discover, that "Covenant of Circumcision" was not THEN AND THERE GIVEN, to THEN AND THERE create The Jewish Nation of Israel! An event that did not actually occur until approximately 430 years later, i.e., at Mt Sinai, Ex 19:1-8. When as is stated in Acts 15:14, "GOD (AT THE FIRST) DID VISIT THE GENTILES, TO TAKE OUT OF THEM A PEOPLE FOR HIS NAME". Israel alone are called "HIS PEOPLE", so that could not possibly refer to Our Mystery Church formation. Now note:

The Apostle John confirmed the foregoing doctrinal fact, when he stated in John 7:22, "MOSES THEREFORE GAVE UNTO YOU (Jews, in contex) CIRCUMCISION. NOT BECAUSE IT WAS OF MOSES, BUT OF THE (Gentile) FATHERS"; i.e., Gentile Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. AND YE (Jews) ON THE SABBATH DAY CIRCUMCISE (Jewish) MEN". Thus, we may doctrinally conclude this far:

(1) That "circumcision" was "nowhere given" in Holy Writ, for the first 2,100 years of biblical history.

(2). That "circumcision" was "(then) first given" to newly saved (GENTILE) Abrahm, and a small group of his (GENTILE) followers!

(3). That "circumcision" was "not given" at Gen 17:10-27, to "create" The Jewish Nation of Israel. Inasmuch as The Jewish Nation of Israel" was not created" until nearly 430 years AFTER Gen Ch 17; i.e., at Mt Sinai, Ex 19:1-8. As so stated by the Jewish Apostle John, in John 7:22, and as above plainly so stated

The foregoing being so, then it should now be determined,(WHY) The Covenant of Circumcision was "first given" to newly saved "GENTILES", almost four centuries BEFORE it was "then adopted" (for) The Jewish Nation of Israel,(by) Moses, at Mt Sinai.

In order to understand this, we must first return to Gen 9:18,19, and Gen 10:5,32, where it plainly states that the post-Noahic world was (again) repopulated solely by "Gentiles"; i.e, Heb. "Goyim", or simply, "pagan nations". Or, biblically speaking, anyone who is "not a Jew", nor a member of "Our Mystery Church"; e.g., 1 Cor 10:32.

"The Gospel" by which Gentiles were "saved"; i.e.; from Adam in Eden till Moses atop Mt Sinai, or for the first 2,500 years of biblical history, would have been "THE GOSPEL (OF) THE UN-CIRCUMCISION", or "THE GOSPEL (OF) THE GENTILES". Which Gospel is now described as follows:

Gal 2:6-8 "EVEN AS (Gentile) ABRAHAM BELIEVED GOD, AND (IT),his faith alone, WAS ACCOUNTED TO HIM FOR RIGHTEOUSNESS. KNOW YE THEREFORE, THAT THEY WHICH ARE OF FAITH. THE SAME, ARE THE CHILDREN OF - ABRAHAM. AND THE SCRIPTURES, FORESEEING, THAT GOD WOULD JUSTI- FY THE GENTILES THROUGH FAITH ALONE). PREACHED BEFORE, THAT GOSPEL UNTO ABRAHAM, SAYING; IN THEE SHALL ALL NATIONS BE BLESSED. (SO THEN, THEY WHICH BE OF FAITH (alone), ARE BLESSED WITH FAITHFUL ABRAHAM").

That is, in (every) dispensation; e.g., Rom 3:29,30, (Gentile) Abraham and his (Gentile) followers were "SAVED BY GRACE, THROUGH FAITH, WITHOUT THE WORKS OF THE OLD TESTAMENT LETTER OF THE LAWS OF MOSES". WHICH LAWS WAS NOT EVEN "GIVEN", UNTIL 430 YEARS (AFTER) THE FOREGOING (Gentile) GOSPEL OF THE UN-CIRCUMCISION WAS FIRST "GIVEN" TO (Gentile) ABRAHAM, AT GEN CH 12.

So, one must then ask themselves -- if 75 year old (Gentile) Abraham and his (Gentile) kinfolk were "saved" at Gen Ch 12, then (WHY), (25 years later), was then 99 year old (Gentile) Abraham, and the same "saved" (Gentile) followers, "placed under" The (Gentile Covenant of Circumcision, at Gen Ch 17? Good question! And one that must be under- stood and accepted, in order to give "circumcision" it's proper scriptural meaning. It is important to remember, in all scriptural matters, "the difference" between the Greek words "de-jure" and "de-facto, "meaning "of law", and "of fact. Why so? Because the scriptures say that "GOD (CANNOT) LIE", Titus 1:2. So whenever God "makes any "scriptural pronouncement", or He "makes a promise", they are considered "de-jure"; i.e., "as having the effect of law". That is, "when made". However, as in many cases, such may not "become de-facto", or "become a fact", until a much later date. For example, in Gen 2:17, God made "the de-jure pronouncement" to Adam and Eve, "THAT (IN THE DAY), THAT THOU EATEST OF THE FORBIDDEN FRUIT---THOU SHALT SURELY DIE". Something which did not become "a defacto reality", until nearly 500 years later, Gen 5:5.

At Gen Ch 12, God "promised de-jure",-"TO MAKE OF ABRAHAM A GREAT NAT- ION". Something which did not become "a defacto reality" until nearly 430 years later; i.e., AFTER Gentile Abraham had begat Gentile Isaac, who begat Gentile Jacob. Who, together with only 69 other (Gentile) souls, went into 430 years of Egyptian captivity. During which time, God created (A NUMERICAL NATION), of well over 600,000 (Gentile souls) Ex 12:37,38--OUT OF WHICH, AT MT SINAI, EX 19:1-8, GOD CREATED THE "DE- FACTO" GREAT NATION OF ISREAL; e.g., Acts 15:14. And why did God do so?

"AS IT WAS IN THE (pre-flood) DAYS OF NOAH", Gen Ch 6. The Gentile world at large had once again become "universally apostate". This time, God would not again bring forth a universal flood to destroy them, but "call out" from that "Gentile mainstream" a continuation of His "seed line of faith". This God did by "calling and saving" then 75 year old, un-circumcised, pagan Gentile Abraham, and a small band of his Gentile kinfolk, Acts 15:14, Joshua 24:1-4. Twenty-five years later, God gave these (saved) Gentiles His "de-jure" Covenant of Circumcision, as described in the foregoing paragraph, AND FOR THE FOLLOWING REASONS.. That God would not "set aside" the Gentiles, de-facto", until 430 years later; i.e., at Mt Sinai, FOLLOWING the 430 years of Egyptian captivity of Jacob (Israel), and the so called "children of Israel". AND that even though The Gospel of The Circumcision was to "re- place" The Gospel of The UN-circum- cision" at that time, "the law", entering at Mt Sinai, was never "to replace" Grace, as "the one and only way" to gain eternal life--in any dispensation! So plainly stated the Apostle Paul, in Romans Chapter 4,and Galatians Chapter 3,and Rom 3:29,30.

Simply stated, The Gospel of The Un-circumcision" was one of "Grace", while The Gospel of the Circumcision was one of "Law". That these were indeed two uniquely different, dispensational Gospels, is set forth as follows:

Gal 2:6-9 "BUT OF THESE WHO SEEMED TO BE SOMEWHAT (i.e. Peter, James, and John, in context). WHATSOEVER THEY WERE, IT MAKETH NO MATTER TO ME (said Paul). GOD, RESPECTETH NO MAN'S PERSON. FOR THEY WHO SEEMED TO BE SOMEWHAT IN CONFERENCE, ADDED NOTHING TO ME. BUT CON- TRARIWISE. WHEN THEY SAW, THAT THE GOSPEL (OF) THE UNCIRCUM- CISION, WAS COMMITTED UNTO ME. AS THE GOSPEL (OF) THE CIRCUM- CISION) WAS UNTO PETER. FOR HE THAT WROUGHT EFFECTUALLY IN PETER (TO) THE APOSTLESHIP (OF) THE CIRCUMCISION. . THE SAME, WAS MIGHTY IN ME (TO) THE GENTILES).
AND WHEN JAMES, PETER, AND JOHN, WHO SEEMED TO BE PILLARS. PER-. CEIVED (THE GRACE) THAT WAS GIVEN UNTO ME. THEY GAVE TO ME AND BARNABAS THE RIGHT HANDS OF FELLOWSHIP. Here it is----THAT WE SHOULD GO UNTO (THE UNCIRCUMCISION), AND THEY TO (THE CIRCUM- CISION". (GOING TO) yes, but each proclaiming their unique Gospel (OF THE)--, Gr TAU ETA SIGMA Two (different Gospels); i.e., "The Gospel (OF) The Circumcision" AND "The Gospel OF The UN-circumcision". The first, continuing to be directed by the Jewish Apostles (solely to) The Jewish Nation of Israel. And the latter, (as of Peter's "three sheet visions of Acts 10:9-48, Acts 11:1-18, Acts 13:46, Acts 18:6, and Acts 28:28), to be directed by Paul, (solely as) The Apostle to the Gentiles! Something that could never have (occurred simultaneously), until Peter's foregoing "three sheet vision", that "reversed" the ancient gospel order of, "TO THE JEWS, AND NOT TO THE GENTILES"; Matt 10:5,6. To then be, "TO THE JEWS FIRST, BUT (after Acts 10:28), ALSO TO THE GENTILES, seeking to become proselytes to National Israel's religion of "Judahism". .

Yes, it is well to now note that "The Gospel of The UN-circumcision's (sole purpose), dur- ing the entire Book of Acts, was to make the Gentiles who accepted it "proselyte converts" to National Israel's Judahism; e.g., the Ethiopian eunuch of Acts 8:26-40. Who had "come to" Jewish Phillip, in order to learn about and accept, Israel's Jewish Messiah! So all that "dispensationally changed", at Peter's "three sheet visions" of Acts 10:9-48, was "the dispensational reversal" of National Israel's complete separation from "the Gentiles". As also stated by Christ Jesus in Matt 10:5,6 and Matt 15:24, of "GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES", and "I AM NOT SENT, BUT UNTO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL". To then "GO TO THE GENTILES", with the (strictly Jew-ish) Kingdom of Heaven Gospel Message of Matt 3:1,2.

Positive proof indeed "of the limited Jewish scope" of the so-called Great Commission of Matt 28:19,20, and Mark 16:15-18. Why so? Because that UNTIL Peter's "three sheet visions" of Acts 10:9-48, Peter plainly stated to Gentile Cornelius (to whom he had just been sent, in vs 28), "YE KNOW HOW THAT (IT IS) AN UNLAWFUL THING,(FOR A MAN, THAT IS A JEW, TO KEEP COMPANY WITH), OR (GO UNTO) ONE OF ANOTHER NATION (i.e. Gentiles). BUT---GOD HATH SHOWED ME (i.e., ten years after the giving of the so called Great Commission of Matt 28:19,20, Mark 16:15-18,and The Jewish Pentecost of Acts Ch 2) THAT I SHOULD NOT (now) CALL ANY (Gentile) MAN, COMMON, OR UNCLEAN".

Strange words indeed,(IF) Jewish Peter and the other post-resurrection Jewish Apostles had (supposedly) received the foregoing "Great Commission", to "GO TO" and "EVANGELIZE" the Gentiles! When in point of scriptural and dispensational fact, they (being Jews) were not even allowed to "GO TO" nor "SOCIALIZE WITH ANY GENTILE", (until) Peter's "three sheet visions", which changed that former "gospel order" at Acts 10:9-48. That such was so, was "verified" in the very next chapter, when at Acts 11:1-5, the other Jewish Apostles angrily denounced Peter for having "GONE TO" one family of Gentiles! That is, UNTIL they had heard Peter's "three sheet vision" explanation for his having done so! So there it is. From Mt Sinai, Ex 19:1-8, untiì Peter's "three sheet visions" of Acts 10:9-16, "IT WAS (STILL UNLAWFUL), FOR ONE THAT WAS A JEW, TO KEEP COMPANY WITH, OR (GO UNTO) ANY GENTILE", for any reason(s). Be it one of proselytizing, or social reasons. Thus, all that "changed" at Acts 10:28 WAS THAT A JEW COULD THEN "GO TO" ANY GENTILE, FOR WHATEVER REASON(S). It was at that precise point in time and place that God chose to "reverse" National Israel's long standing Mosaic "law of separation" of Jews from Gentiles. Something that (obviously) did not occur at Christ's "recommissioning" of His Jewish Apostles at Matt 28:19,20, Mark 16:15-18,or at the events surrounding the (strictly Jewish) Pentecost of Acts Ch 2. Nor in fact at any time (prior to) Acts 10:28.

Contrary to much universal teaching, The Book of Act ,is not A New Testament, Mystery Church epistle, but is a continuation of Old Testament Jewish epistles. Why so? Because of Christ's dying "intercessory prayer" for National Israel of Luke 23:34 "FATHER, FORGIVE THEM, FOR THEY KNOW NOT WHAT THEY DO". As Israel's Highest Priest, and as the "IMMANUEL, GOD WITH US" of Matt 1:22,23. Christ's prayer "RETURNED INTO HIS OWN BOSOM", Ps 33:13,and was immediately granted. Thus forestalling God's Divine Judgement on National Israel, and granting National Israel a period of "Divine Amnesty", which would endure during the entire Jewish epistle of Acts. And during which period, National Israel (who had rejected her Messiah in His Earthly Incarnation) would be granted another opportunity to accept Israel's Messiah---in His Resurrection! See Acts 3:12-26.

Many "individual Jews" did so. National Israel (once again) refused to do so. It was for the latter reason that The Holy Spirit "SEPARATED PAUL AND BARNABAS" at Acts 13:2, to (temporarily) "set aside" National Israel, and National Israel's Old Testament Dispensation of Law (transitionally), at Acts 13:46, Acts 18:6,and finally, at Acts 28:28. First, at Jerusalem. Secondly, at Corinth. And thirdly and lastly, at Rome. Much doctrinal and dispensational error has resulted from those who "wrongly divide" the strictly Jewish book of Acts, and who would read "Church Truth" or "Church Program" into this strictly Jewish Old Testament epistle. . Romans 11:25,in context, sums up the foregoing facts as follows: "FOR I WOULD NOT BRETHREN, THAT YE SHOULD BE IGNORANT OF THIS MYSTERY. LEST YE SHOULD BE WISE IN YOUR OWN CONCEITS. ("THAT BLINDNESS IN PART IS HAPPENED TO ISRAEL, UNTIL THE FULNESS OF THE GENTILES BE COME IN").

Going back to Peter's "three sheet visions",of Acts 10:9-16. God,then chose to once again "deal with the Gentiles",inasmuch as He was about to cease dealing with National Israel, and was about to create "OUR CHURCH, OF THE MYSTERY OF EPH 3:1-10, ROM 16:25,26. Which would be composed of "NEITHER JEW, NOR GENTILE,(BUT OF THE TWAIN), A NEW CREATION, IN CHRIST JESUS",e.g. Eph 2:11-21, Col 3:11,and Gal 3:28.

Much doctrinal confusion concerning the Jewish book of Acts, has resulted from failing to note the unique "two-fold ministry" of The Apostle Paul during that period; i.e., as follows:

1 Cor 9:19:23 "FOR THOUGH I BE FREE FROM ALL MEN,YET HAVE I MADE MYSELF SERVANT UNTO ALL. (AND UNTO THE JEWS, I BECAME (AS) A JEW). (TO THEM THAT ARE UNDER THE LAW (AS) UNDER THE LAW). THAT I MIGHT GAIN THEM THAT ARE UNDER THE LAW. (TO THEM THAT ARE WITHOUT LAW (AS) WITHOUT LAW). BEING NOT WITHOUT LAW TO GOD, BUT UNDER THE LAW TO CHRIST. THAT I MIGHT GAIN THEM THAT ARE WITHOUT LAW. (TO THE WEAK BECAME I (AS) WEAK, THAT I MIGHT GAIN THE WEAK). I AM MADE ALL THINGS TO ALL MEN. THAT I MIGHT BY ALL MEANS SAVE SOME. AND THIS I DO FOR THE GOSPELS SAKE. THAT I MIGHT BE PARTAKER THEREOF WITH YOU".

There it is. During the Acts period, when Paul "went to the Jews", he could and did (act as if) he were "still a Jew, under the law of Moses". Which of course he was not; e.g., Acts 13:39. That is precisely why, in Acts 16:1-3, Paul circumcised Timothy; and why in Acts 21:18-26, Paul "shaved his head, and took a Jewish vow". Which were certainly not (our) Mystery Church programs! When Peter thought to practice the same foregoing "two-fold ministry" as that given uniquely to Paul in the Acts period, Paul openly "WITHSTOOD PETER TO THE FACE" for doing so; ,e.g. Gal 2:11-18, and accused Peter "of practicing duplicity" for so doing. Paul alone was given "the Acts authority" to act (AS) either a Jew, (OR) a Gentile, when "dealing" with either! This is well to remember when one examines PAUL'S OTHER (JEWISH) EPISTLES, WRITTEN (DURING) THE ACTS PERIOD; i.e., prior to his third and final "setting aside" of Israel's Old Testament, at Acts 28:28. For example--. Romans, 1 Cor, 2 Cor, Gal, 1 Thess, 2 Thess, 1 Tim, 2 Tim, Titus, Philemon. These books are "wrongly divided" as being New Testament Mystery Church Epistles; when in fact they are simply continuations of Old Testament, Jewish epistles!

A prime example of the above is found in the (Jewish) epistle of 1 Cor 14:18, where Paul said to the Jews: "I THANK GOD I SPEAK IN TONGUES MORE THAN YOU ALL"; i.e., one of the "Jewish sign gifts of the Jewish believer", as so set forth in Matt 10:8, Mark 16:15-18, Acts Ch 2. And, had Paul "not exhibited" that sign gift of the (Jewish) believers, Paul's ministry to "the Jews" would never have been accepted by them; e.g., Acts 10:44-48. Why not"? 1 Cor 14:22 "TONGUES, ARE FOR A SIGN"--with 1 Cor 1:22 "FOR THE JEWS, REQUIRE A SIGN". In Chapter 12, Paul told those same "Jews" to continue to observe "the good things" still under the laws of Moses (till Acts 28:28). But said Paul in verse 31, "YET SHOW I UNTO YOU A MORE EXCELLENT WAY" as "under The Grace of Christ", rather than "under the laws of Moses". How could Paul make such an offer to "those Jews" in the Jewish epistle of 1st Corinthians?

The answer? God's different dispensations "never overlap"; Heb 1:1,2. However, at certain points in biblical history, certain lives "overlapped" the change in God's dispensations! For example: at Mt Sinai, Ex 19:1-8, (saved) Moses and those Gentiles coming out of 430 years of Egyptian captivity, were about to have The Gospel of The Un-circumcision "replaced by" The Gospel of the Circumcision; i.e., The Covenant of Promise of Gen Chs 12 thru 17, "replaced by" The Old Testament Covenant of Law. This did not require that (saved) Moses and his followers of (saved) Gentiles (that were about to become The Newly Created Nation of Israel) needed to be "re-saved". They were simply "being placed under" a different set of unique dispensational requirements than that required of them previously as Gentiles; e.g., 1 Cor 12:2, Acts 15:1-30. At Mt Sinai, each individual Gentile could "chose" whether to remain as "A REMNANT OF GENTILES, ACCORDING TO THE ELECTION OF GRACE"; e.g., Rom 11:5; or "chose to accept" the new Dispensation of Law and abide by it's well over 660 new commandments, judgements, and ordinances. "A REMNANT OF GENTILES" chose the first. The majority of well over 600,000 other Gentiles chose the latter. Saved fathers (and not the newly created Levitical Priesthood) "passed on The Grace Message" to their offspring, Isa 38:19,with Ex 12:26,27.

The foregoing "overlapping of lives" during a change in God's dispensational program occurred once again, during the entire period of Acts; e.g., Acts 13:46, Acts 18:6,and Acts 28:28, as the temporary, parenthetical Dispensation of Law (i.e. The Old Testament), Letter-of-the-law-of Moses was "transitionally set aside" at the foregoing, three specific points in time and place; and was (simultaneously replaced) at those same specific points in time and place by Our Gospel of The Mystery Church, Grace of Christ; e.g., Gal 1:6-9, Eph 2:8,9, Titus 3:5.

Once again, (as at Mt Sinai), those "Jews" living under The Dispensation of The Old Testament Laws of Moses did not need to be "re-saved", but they were given (by Paul) "the unique choice", of "living under" EITHER of the foregoing dispensations. Law? Or Grace? Most chose the former. "A REMNANT, ACCORDING TO THE ELECTION OF GRACE" chose the latter. Paul, the Apostle of the Gentiles, simply began to once more present "The (Grace) Gospel of The Gentiles," previously set aside" at Mt Sinai; e.g., Gal 2:6-9, as "the one and only salvation message" of any and all dispensations; e.g., Rom 3:29,30.

In summation, there is a biblical (literal circumcision), Gen 17:9-27. Which of course has been dispensationally abolished. And there is a biblical (spiritual circumcision) that replaced the former, as follows:

Rom 3:28,29 "FOR HE IS NOT A JEW, WHICH IS ONE OUTWARDLY. NEITHER IS THAT CIRCUMCISION WHICH IS OUTWARD, IN THE FLESH. BUT HE IS A JEW, WHICH IS ONE INWARDLY. AND CIRCUMCISION IS THAT OF THE HEART, IN THE SPIRIT, AND NOT IN THE LETTER. WHOSE PRAISE IS NOT OF MEN, BUT OF GOD". There each are described. Physical circumcision and Spiritual circumcision. "The Shadow", and "The Reality". "The Shadow", representing "a work of the law"; and "The Reality", representing "a work of faith". Physical circumcision represent- ing "the cutting off of the filth of the flesh". Spiritual circumcision representing "the cutting off of The Messiah at Calvary", when in one moment of time, CHRIST JESUS, BECAME "THE FILTHY FORESKIN OF ALL MANKIND", AND WAS "CUT OFF FOR US, Col 2:11. "IN WHOM ALSO YE ARE CIRCUMCISED, WITH THE CIRCUMCISION MADE WITHOUT HANDS. IN PUTTING OFF THE BODY OF THE SINS OF THE FLESH, BY THE CIRCUMCISION OF CHRIST". Yes. Christ Jesus IS our Spiritual Circumcision!. We neither "get", nor "need", any other "Spiritual Cleansing". Strange as it might seem, Christ Jesus "became our filthy foreskin" and was literally (as well as symbolic- ally) "cut off for us", at Calvary.

Wellington

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