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"THE MODERN DAY PHARISEES & SADDUCEES"

Today, Sept. 11, 2000, I "downloaded" THAT WHICH appeared TO a saved friend, concerning a well designed "attack" on Christ Jesus, AS being Israel's Promised Messiah. Some of WHICH I already knew, BUT "other attacks", supposedly verified by literal quotations from THE Jewish Torah, AS quoted from THE (original) MSS, AND which, I had NOT previously "heard", AND WHICH I firmly believe should be "scripturally rebutted" AS follows:

Their 1st assertion?

(1). In paragraph 1, these modern day Pharisees AND Sadducees, THAT (originally) caused Christ Jesus TO be (Nationally rejected) AS Israel's Promised Messiah, AND TO be "slain" at Calvary for declaring Himself AS such. Use AS their "1st attack" Psalms 22:16, which, AS it appears in (our) KJV states in part: "--THEY PIERCED MY HANDS AND FEET".

They say (quote):"Nowhere in THE entire Torah, Prophets AND writings, do THE words c'ari, or hikifuny mean anything remotely resembling "pierce", BUT THAT THE Hebrew states "hikifuni ca'ari ysday veraglay", WHICH means "they bound me (hikifuni) like a lion, MY hands (ysday) AND MY feet (ve-AND raglay), Unquote.

My answer? I accept your Hebrew in THE matter. Big deal! Even in ancient AND modern day "executions", THE hands AND THE feet of those being prepared for execution ARE FIRST BOUND, for obvious reasons, AND THEN THE remaining "form" of execution carried out. There is no reason TO assume, THAT THE Ps Ch 22 recorded prophecy concerning THE execution of Christ Jesus, would exclude THE Hebrew account of THE FIRST so restraining of Christ's (AND THE 4 others slain WITH Him), by being FIRST BOUND, AND THEN having been nailed TO THE Greek Stauros, or Xulon, Stake, or Driven Pole! A fact, "simply omitted" from THE Ps Ch 22 account, BUT later repeatedly verified, in THE so-called New Testament.
THE trouble WITH this, AND THE other faulted arguments (misused) by THE modern Jewish Pharisees AND Sadducees, in these ongoing, uninterrupted attacks on THE events surrounding "THE Birth, Life, Ministry, Death, Burial, Resurrection, AND Deity of Christ Jesus is simply this. They reject en toto, ALL THAT is set forth concerning THE above, by simply rejecting ALL THAT WAS written about Christ Jesus--FOLLOWING--THE last Torah epistle of THE Jewish Prophet Malachi!

Thus, although THE New Testament (Jewish Apostle's) epistles do indeed verify their assertion of Ps 22:16 THAT "THEY PERCED MY HANDS AND MY FEET". Such a "replacement" or "addition" TO Ps 22:17,(AS well AS THAT going both before AND after). would be (a factual) replacement, or addition, ACCORDING TO (Jewish) Matthew. Mark, Luke, AND John! THE Psalmist simply recording THE FIRST BINDING, AND NOT THE LATER "PIERCING" of Christ's Hands AND Feet!

NOT unusual, when on more than one such occasion, one must do AS THE (Jewish) Apostle Paul suggested THAT All should do, "TO COMPARE SPIRITUAL, WITH SPIRITUAL", 1 Cor 2:13. Or simply stated. Permit THE Word of GOD TO interpret THE Word of God. For another such classic example: In all four of THE synoptic Gospels of Matt, Mark, Luke, AND John. NOT one of them contains (THE complete inscription) placed above Christ's Head at Calvary by Pontius Pilate. One HAS TO "add each together", for then, AND only then does (THE full content) of THAT inscription appear, i.e., Once again, "BY COMPARING THE WORD OF GOD, WITH THE WORD OF GOD".

THE Pharisees AND Sadducees in question. Did not. AND WILL not. AND would "hold us" TO THE singular Hebrew word contained in Ps 22:16, without "adding" an (admitted) verbally incorrect word, BUT nonetheless. A SCRIPTURALLY ACCURATE ADDITION TO IT, i.e. John 20;27, in context. They continue, AS follows:.

Their 2nd assertion: Quote:

In Isaiah 7:14, THE Hebrew states, "hince ha'almah harah veyole det ben". "behold (hineih), THE young woman,(ha-the-almah-young woman), is pregnant (harah) AND SHALL give birth) TO a son (ben)". THE Christians translate THIS AS "behold a virgin SHALL give birth". They have made two mistakes (probably deliberate) in THE one verse. They mistranslate "ha" AS "a", instead of "the". They mistranslate "almah" AS "virgin", when in fact THE Hebrew word for "virgin" is "betulah". Aside from THE fact THAT IF you read THE context of THAT prediction you WILL see clearly THAT it is predicting an event THAT WAS supposed TO happen AND be seen by king Achaz, who lived 700 years before Jesus.

My answer? THE same AS THAT given in answer TO their first assertion. Once again, THE Psalmist set forth one truth, i.e. THAT THE person referred TO in Isa 7:14, WAS "a young, preg- nant woman". Who, ACCORDING TO Christ's own (Jewish) Apostles, "WAS (also prophetically speaking) A YOUNG, PREGNANT, FEMALE VIRGIN", Matt 1:23 in context. WHICH (Jewish) epistle is totally rejected by both THE ancient AND modern day Pharisees AND Sadducees, BUT WHICH THE modern translators of THE Hebrew Text thought it NOT a corrupting of "THE full meaning" of THAT text, TO refer TO THAT young, pregnant woman (AS scripturally said TO ALSO be)--"virginal". BUT once again. IF one does NOT accept THE latter, then one would be "verbally obligated" TO uphold--ONLY--THE former. THE substitution OF ANY WORD, aside from THAT contained in THE ancient Hebrew or Greek Text, TO "THE purist", (WHICH THIS author is one) is forbidden, BUT even in THE KJV THE translator(s), AND publishers "added" THE word "BLOOD" TO Acts 17:26. WHICH does NOT appear in THE best MSS, AND is actually omitted from THE RV. AS follows:
Acts 17:26 "AND HATH MADE OF ONE (BLOOD), ALL NATIONS OF MEN, TO DWELL ON ALL THE FACE OF THE EARTH--". Here, THE Greek word for "ONE", i.e. heis, is oftentimes used TO denote "A CERTAIN ONE" (tis), or AS in THIS case ADAM, or THE common dust from WHICH he, AND all of (his) subsequent descendants, ARE commonly formed. Which, being scripturally true (Gen 2:7). THE "addition" of THE word "BLOOD" in no way "alters" THE real meaning of THE original text, much THE same AS THE "substituting" AND "adding" of THE word in Ps 22:16 AND Isa 7:14, ARE in "doctrinal agreement" WITH THE other "related verses" in (our) so-called New Testament! THE Pharisaical authors of THIS "attack" on THE Full Deity of Christ Jesus, AND refusal TO accept Him AS Israel's Promised Messiah, simply refuse TO accept THE (Jewish) epistles of Matt, Mark, Luke AND John. Nor
any others FOLLOWING Malachi!

Now, TO continue:

Their 3rd assertion: Quote. Genealogy: HE WAS NOT descended from THE House of David. ACCORDING TO Jewish law, tribal identification comes from THE father side. Being Jewish, from THE mother's side. ACCORDING TO Matthew 1, Joseph WAS descended from David. (Although there ARE many contradictions between his genealogy there, AND THAT
listed in Luke. However ACCORDING TO THE same text, Joseph did NOT have sexual relations WITH Mary. Therefore Jesus WAS NOT related TO Joseph, AND therefore NOT a descendant of King David.

Three answers TO THIS problem ARE given in classic Christian sources: THE genealogy is THAT of Mary. THIS is inadequate, since IF HE is claimed TO be THE Jewish Messiah, AND ACCORDING TO Jewish tradition HE must be descended on his father's side, Mary's genealogy is irrelevant.

HE WAS adopted by Joseph. ACCORDING TO Jewish law, adoption does NOT change THE status of THE child. IF an Israeli is adopted by a Cohen,(A descendant of Aaron THE High Priest. THE child does NOT become a Cohen. Likewise, IF a descendant of David, adopts someone who is not. HE does NOT become of THE tribe of Judah AND a descendant of David.

It doesn't matter. HE WAS a spiritual inheritor of King David. IF it doesn't matter. Why do Christian scriptures spend time establishing his genealogical pedigree? AND IF HE is claimed TO be THE Jewish Messiah. Then ACCORDING TO Jewish tradition, it does matter.

My answer? Notice carefully, THAT in Matt 1:1, Christ Jesus is called BOTH THE son of David AND THE son of Abraham. So NEITHER could possibly be referring TO an actual, human, physical, "son-ship"! Christ Jesus, posed THIS same "question, in riddle form" TO THE Pharisees of his day, AS follows:

Matt 22:41-46 "WHILE THE PHARISEES WERE GATHERED TOGETHER, Jesus ASKED THEM, SAYING, WHAT THINK YE OF CHRIST? WHOSE SON IS HE? THEY SAY UNTO HIM. THE SON OF DAVID. HE SAITH UNTO THEM. HOW THEN DOTH DAVID IN SPIRIT CALL HIM LORD? SAYING, "THE LORD SAID UNTO MY LORD, SIT THOU ON MY RIGHT HAND, TILL I MAKE THINE ENEMIES THY FOOTSTOOL? IF DAVID THEN CALL HIM LORD. HOW IS HE HIS SON? AND NO MAN WAS ABLE TO ANSWER HIM A WORD--".

There it is, Pharisees! When in Matt AND elsewhere Christ Jesus is referred TO AS being "A SON". IT NEVER REFERS TO AN ACTUAL "FLESHLY RELATIONSHIP. In THAT respect, note THAT Joseph himself WAS called "a son of David", in Matt 1:20.

In Gal 3:7, it says: "KNOW YE THEREFORE, THAT THEY WHICH ARE OF FAITH, ARE THE CHILDREN OF ABRAHAM". Be it saved Jew, or saved Gentile. No actual "fleshly" relationship, neither stated, nor intended. THE Encyclopedic Dictionary gives at least "five different meanings" of THE word "son", including those of a lower case (human) relationship, AND THAT of THE Sole Upper Case, capital S, of God, THE Son, 2nd Person, Holy Trinity.

Thus, when Christ Jesus is referred TO AS "THE SON OF DAVID"--AND--THE SON OF ABRHAM", in Matt 1:1, it WAS simply referring TO His having been totally Incarnated, in AND through, THE Judahistic, kingly Line of David (AS so foretold of Him, in Gen 49:8-10, WITH Heb 7;11-16, AND elsewhere throughout THE entire Bible. AND His (Faith) relationship TO Abraham, who is symbolically referred TO AS "THE FAITH FATHER OF US ALL", WHICH would include Him, WHO IS, THE PERSONIFICATION OF ALL SUCH FAITH!

THE Pharisees, AND mankind in general, would "deify man" AND "humanize Christ Jesus, e.g. Acts 14:11 in context, WITH John 10:30-33, BUT THAT Christ Jesus WAS never "a hu-man, dirt- man". Nor, "part human" AND "Part Divine". May be shown AS follows:

(1). John 8:23.24 "AND HE ANSWERED AND SAID UNTO THEM. YE, ARE FROM BENEATH. I AM FROM ABOVE. YE ARE OF THIS WORLD. I AM NOT OF THIS WORLD. I SAID THEREFORE UNTO YOU, THAT YE SHALL DIE IN YOUR SINS FOR IF YE BELIEVE NOT THAT (I AM), i.e. THE I Am, AND ever WILL be. THE One AND Only JEHOVAH GOD I AM, of Ex 3:14. YE SHALL DIE IN YOUR SINS". AND THAT is,. regardless of whatever else one might or might NOT believe about Me.

(2). In John 8:58, Jesus plainly stated: "BEFORE ABRAHAM WAS, I AM".

(3). In Isa 9:6, THE SON, is also called, "THE MIGHTY GOD" AND "THE EVERLASTING FATHER". WHICH WAS "confirmed" by Christ Jesus, in John 10:30 when HE said: "I AND MY FATHER, ARE ONE". AND in answering Philip's request TO "SHOW US THE FATHER", replied at John 14:9. HE THAT HATH SEEN ME, HATH SEEN THE FATHER".

(4). In John 1:1-14, it is said of Christ Jesus, AS THE Descended Living Word of God. "IN THE BEGINNING WAS THE WORD. AND THE WORD WAS WITH GOD. AND THE WORD WAS GOD". AS sworn enemies of THE Deity of Christ Jesus. THE so-called Jehovah Witnesses,(in their New World Translation(?)--add THE word (a) before the word God. Thus, making Christ Jesus, BUT one of THE many, self proclaimed pagan gods, (small g), throughout Holy Writ, e.g. Judges 17:5. 2 Kings 17:29, Isa 44:15. Christ, AS THE Jehovah GOD I AM, of Ex 3L14, John 6:23.24--stated otherwise in Isa 43:10, Isa 44:6.

(5). In Rev 1:17 AND Rev 22:13, THE Risen, glorified Christ Jesus said of Himself: I AM THE FIRST, AND THE LAST". "I AM ALPHA AND OMEGA, THE BEGINNING AND THE END. THE FIRST AND THE LAST", AS also said of Jehovah God, in THE foregoing related verses.

(6). In 1 Cor 15:45-50, Paul plainly stated. THAT Christ Jesus, WAS never "made from" THE earth, earthy, AS WAS Adam AND ALL of Adam's subsequent hu-man, dirt-man descendants e.g. Gen 2:7. AND THAT HE should never be considered, AS ever having been either "all human", "part human". Nor "part human, AND Part Divine"!

(7). AS a point of doctrinal fact: Heb 9:5 said of Christ, AND His Wholly Divine Incarnation, simply occurring within Mary's (then) virgin womb. "HE WAS MADE PERFECT". Some- thing THAT could never be said of Adam, or ANY of Adam's earthly human descendants, e.g. Rom 8:20.

(8). THAT Christ's Divine Body WAS unlike THAT of ANY "hu-man, dirt-man's body, is plainly shown in Acts, 2-31, AND THE Jewish Torah. Where it states of Christ's death AND 72 hour "entombment "--BECAUSE THOU WILT NOT LEAVE MY SOUL IN HELL. NEITHER WILT THOU SUFFER THINE HOLY ONE TO SEE CORRUPTION". Simply stated. Unlike any "human corpse", Christ's Divine Body suffered "no decay" whatsoever, while entombed. See also Ps 16:8-10.

(9). THAT Christ's Blood, WAS unlike THAT of ANY human being's blood, is so stated in Acts 20:28, where it is defined THE Blood of GOD Himself, AND in 1 Pet 1:18, 19, where Peter called Christ's Divine Blood of GOD of Acts 20:8, AS being "Precious" enough. AND "Spotless" enough. TO have paid THE full price demanded by GOD Himself--for ALL sin. See also 1 John 1:7.

THE foregoing list could go on AND on. BUT IF anybody (including Pharisees) would insist upon "further proof", then they would NOT accept "it" AS well. A subject, covered in far greater detail, in other related studies by THIS same author. BUT TO continue THIS answer. Simply stated. THE Pharisees, THAT set forth THIS Web Page, AND THE world at large, including ALL of THE well over 12,000 man-made religious bodies in view today, choose TO consider Christ Jesus, AS "THE son" of God, lower case letters, rather than AS "THE SON" of God, upper case letters. WHICH HE was, is, AND ever WILL be.

Their 4th assertion: Quote. THE main predictions concerning THE Messiah, ARE THAT HE WILL bring peace TO THE world, gather THE people from their exile, TO THE LAND of Israel AND THE Temple in Jerusalem.

After Jesus' appearance, THE Temple WAS destroyed, THE Jews were exiled all over THE world AND we have NOT even had one day of peace in THE past 2000 years. (Many of THE wars in fact were started AND fought by followers of Jesus). These events ARE enough TO show THAT HE WAS NOT THE messiah.

THE main Christian responses TO these objections are: THE Second Coming, First of all we find THIS TO be a contrived answer, since there is no mention of a second coming in (their) Jewish Bible. Second. Why couldn't GOD accomplish His goals THE first time around? MOST importantly, THE second coming idea is just an attempt at answering an obvious question, BUT it certainly does NOT constitute proof of messianic claims.

There is peace within his followers hearts. THAT is wonderful for them, BUT does THAT help THE victims of THE Inquisition, THE Crusades, THE Hundred Years War, THE first World War, etc.? In each of THE events I have mentioned most IF NOT all of THE combatants, THE violent oppressors AND torturers, were people who claimed TO be followers of Jesus. AND is peace in THE heart AND fulfillment of "swords INTO plowshares". etc.? Unquote.

My answer? Again carefully note, THAT these modern day Pharisees totally reject any AND all of THE so called Christian Bible. WHICH "pointedly deals with" each AND one of THE foregoing posed questions AND comments. AS a point of doctrinal fact. Christ Jesus ALSO FORETOLD of His rejection AS Israel's prophesied Messiah, of Gen 49:9-10, AND His eventual slaying by them at Calvary, Ps Ch 22, Isa Ch 54, AND numerous other places throughout THE Jewish Torah. AND, THAT AS a direct, AND indirect result of THAT "rejection", AND THE persecution of His Jewish AND Gentile followers down through, AND UNTO THIS present day. THAT "it" would lead TO THE destruction of THE Jewish Temple at Jerusalem, THE Jewish Diaspora INTO hostile foreign lands, fleeing Holy LAND persecution, "wars, AND rumors of wars", AND THE "lack of civil peace" WHICH would eventually lead TO Adolph Hitler's "death camps" of Dachau, Buchenwald, Auschwitz, AND a host of other such acts, COMMITTED BY THOSE (PROFESSING) CHRIST-IANITY--BUT WERE (OBVIOUSLY) NOT CHRIST-ONES. Who plainly told His Jewish Disciples, in THE Garden of Gethsemane, on THE night in WHICH HE WAS betrayed told Pilate, "(IF) MY KINGDOM WERE OF THIS WORLD, MY SERVANT WOULD FIGHT, THAT I WOULD NOT BE DELIVERED TO THE JEWS,(BUT NOW), IS MY KINGDOM NOT FROM HENCE"--AND had earlier said TO defending Peter, "PUT UP THY SWORD INTO THY SHEATH". AND-- THEY THAT TAKE THE SWORD, SHALL PERISH BY THE SWORD, Matt 26:52. Hardly THE words THAT could lead TO either Christ Jesus, or His subsequent "followers", being falsely accused of "having started" ANY of THE world's subsequent, multiple warfares. AND whoever did, or does so. Rest assured, THAT they do so, without having received (Christ's) directing them TO do so. It WAS assuredly NOT "Christ followers" THAT destroyed Jerusalem AND THE Jewish Temple. Nor THAT destroyed "THE peace" of THE Holy Land, AND THE world at large. Even historical records bear out THE fact, THAT it WAS "they" THAT were THE persecuted, AND "they", THAT endured THE horrendous "holocaust" of WW2, AS THE Jewish Diaspora addressed by Jewish Apostles James AND Peter, in James 1:1, AND 1 Pet 1:1

On THE belt buckles of THE German Warriors, were THE words "GOTT MITT UNS" i.e. "GOD, WITH US". WHICH one of THE Jewish Ten-Commandments defines as, THE TAKING OF THE LORD'S NAME-IN VAIN,--or calling one's self A CHRIST-ONE, or CHRIST-IAN, when they, en toto, were not. Neither were those who launched "THE Crusades", nor "THE (Vatican Rome sponsored) Inquisition", nor any other so called "holy war" launched by "Muslim Jihad" devotees TO Allah, THE Muslim God. Christ Jesus, himself foretold, THAT THE foregoing "pagan nations" would use any all pretexts "TO wage self-serving wars". Even under THE guise of "misguided religious fervor". See Christ's Olivet Discourse, of Matt Ch 24, AND 25, AND also other secular historical records THAT support it.

BUT once again. THE writer of THIS AND similar Pharisaic "attacks" on THE Deity of Christ when confronted by THE (Christian) Bible's total rebuttal of each AND every one of their foregoing "attacks". Simply refuse TO nominally accept it, AS being "a GOD given addition" TO THE Jewish Torah. Thus, before ANY meaningful conclusion(s) can be reached, on this, or any other debated issues be it biblical or otherwise. BOTH debating parties must (first agree, TO abide by a mutually acceptable "authority" in THE matter. Be it for example. THE Holy Bible, or THE Card Players Bible known AS THE Book of Hoyle etc., ad infinitum.

No such (mutual agreement)? No "resolvable conclusion(s)". AND THAT is precisely WHY one CANNOT successfully "rebut" any confirmed Pharisee. We believe (our) entire Holy Bible, TO be THE one AND only final arbiter in THIS AND ALL of THE countless "other issues" facing mankind. AND they of course--do not.

AS for WHY GOD couldn't accomplish His goals "THE first time around", AS mentioned earlier in THIS study by THE Pharisees. Their own Torah plainly predicted in Ps Ch 22, AND in Isa Ch 53, AND in other places therein. THAT there would indeed be a rejection of Christ Jesus AS Israel's Promised Messiah, leading TO His being slain at Calvary, AND THE (decades) of civil unrest THAT would follow, AS covered by THIS author also earlier in THIS study. That THE Torah's promises THAT Messiah would "bring peace" TO THE world AND TO THE Jewish people AND rebuild THE Temple at Jerusalem, etc. did NOT THEN occur, only confirms THAT Christ Jesus (had TO have been) THAT Promised Messiah! His 2nd (Victorious Coming) WAS indeed "predicted" in THE Jewish Torah, in Gen 3:14, 15 Wounded, at His (first coming); BUT THE "Wounder", at His Second Coming. AND Christ Jesus IS Peace, Eph 2:14, Luke 2:14, BUT THAT HE did NOT come THE first time TO bring individual AND civil peace TO mankind, WAS plainly so stated by Christ, AS follows:

Matt 10:34-36 "THINK NOT THAT I AM COME, TO SEND PEACE ON EARTH. I CAME NOT TO SEND PEACE, BUT A SWORD. FOR I AM COME TO SET A MAN AT VARIANCE AGAINST HIS FATHER.AND THE DAUGHTER AGAINST HER MOTHER, AND THE DAUGHTER-IN-LAW AGAINST HER MOTHER-IN-LAW. AND A MAN'S WORST ENEMIES, WILL BE THEY OF HIS OWN HOUSEHOLD".

Sorry about THAT, Pharisees. THE world at large, including yourselves, were offered PEACE, upper case letters, AND rejected HIM. AND (then) THE foregoing dire predictions of what THAT would "naturally lead to"--"naturally occurred". So don't blame Messiah Christ Jesus. Blame yourselves.

Their 5th assertion: Quote. Messiah is a prophet, a scholar AND a pious king. Jesus made a prediction THAT "THE TIME IS FULFILLED. THE KINGDOM OF GOD IS AT HAND" Mark 1:15. THAT WAS 2,000 years ago. HAS THE kingdom of GOD come? Do you call THE holocaust, Pol Pot AND Stalin a world in WHICH THE kingdom of GOD HAS come? Jesus WAS NOT a scholar. One of THE requirement of THE Messiah. WAS Jesus a king? HE WAS NOT anointed AS king by a prophet (AS WAS THE rule in Jewish kings). HE WAS NOT appointed by any judicial body AS a leader AND HE did NOT rule over THE Jewish people, nor WAS HE accept- ed by them. HE WAS arrested, tortured AND killed like a common criminal. HE had no army or government. THE answer TO MY question is an obvious no.

My answer? Christ's prediction of Mark 1:15 mentioned above, HAS a very profound yet very simple answer. Had National Israel (then) accepted their Messiah King,(then) THE Kingdom of God, AND it's King WAS certainly "AT HAND". He, AND "it", WAS standing before them. They of course rejected BOTH HIM, AND "IT", 2000 years ago, assuring THE foregoing horrendous events THAT followed. THAT Jesus "WAS NOT a great scholar", WAS NOT denied, BUT affirmed by (your) "fathers", when John 7:14, 15 states: "NOW ABOUT THE MIDST OF THE FEAST, Jesus WENT UP INTO THE TEMPLE, AND TAUGHT. AND THE JEWS MARVELLED SAYING. HOW KNOWETH THIS MAN LETTERS, HAVING NEVER LEARNED"? i.e., having never received a formal earthly, institutional education?

WAS Jesus a king?---Of course. BUT when Pilate said TO THE Pharisees--"BEHOLD, YOUR KING". THE rulers of Israel spoke (for) THE Jews AND said, "WE WILL NOT HAVE THIS MAN TO RULE OVER US". BUT even Pilate "believed" THAT Christ Jesus WAS Israel's Promised King Messiah, when HE placed THE inscription above Christ's Head at Calvary WHICH read--"JESUS OF NAZERETH---KING OF THE JEWS", AND when THE rulers of Israel tried TO get Him TO remove it or simply TO say--"HE SAID, HE WAS THE KING OF THE JEWS". Pilate replied. "WHAT I HAVE WRITTEN, I HAVE WRITTEN", AND THE inscription remained--AS written.

WAS Christ Jesus a king? Of course. Your "fathers" even crowned him AS such--BUT WITH "A CROWN OF THRONES", AND THE mocking use of a (temporary) "PURPLE ROBE".

WAS Christ Jesus ever "anointed" by a Jewish Prophet, AS Israel's Prophesied Messiah, king of Israel. Of course. Anna, THE (Jewish) Prophetess, at Luke 2:36-38, in context.

Did Christ Jesus ever "rule" over Israel? NOT then! Remember what THE rulers said (for) all Israel, told Pilate--"WE WILL NOT HAVE THIS MAN TO RULE OVER US". WAS Christ Jesus arrested, tortured AND killed like a common criminal? Yes. BUT--at THE insistence of THE foregoing "rulers of Israel". AND by THE way, ACCORDING TO THAT prophesied of Him in THE Jewish Torah, in Ps Ch 22, AND Isa Ch 56.AND other related verses. Shame. Shame. Shame. On Israel. NOT Christ Jesus.

Their 6th assertion: (TO continue denying THE Deity of Christ Jesus). Quote. THE Christian idea of a trinity contradicts THE most basic tenet of Judaism. THAT GOD is one. Jews have declared their belief in a single unified GOD twice daily since THE giving of THE Torah at Mt Sinai, almost 2000 years before Christianity. THE Trinity suggests a three part Deity. THE Father, THE Son, AND THE Holy Ghost. Matt 28:19. In Jewish law, worship of a three part GOD is idolatry. One of THE three cardinal sins for WHICH a person would rather give up his life than transgress.

My answer? THE Torah itself first declares THE Holy Trinity of THE One God, when at Gen 1:1, THE word God, Heb Elohim, is a uniplural noun, so THE Holy Trinity is latent in THAT word ELOHIM, WITH such being plainly so indicated in Gen 1:28 where GOD said TO God, "LET (US) MAKE MAN IN (OUR) IMAGE. AFTER (OUR) LIKENESS.

AND in Gen 3:22 where God, said TO God: "--BEHOLD, THE MAN HAS BECOME AS ONE OF (US).

AND in Gen 11: where GOD said TO God: "--LET (US) GO DOWN AND THERE CON- FOUND THEIR LANGUAGE--".

AND in Ps 45:6, 7, AND repeated in Heb 1:8, 9); God, said TO God: "THY THRONE O GOD IS FOREVER. THE SCEPTRE OF THY KINGDOMIS A RIGHT SCEPTRE. THOU LOVEST RIGHTEOUSNESS AND HATES WICKEDNESS. THEREFORE GOD. THY GOD HATH ANOINTED THEE WITH THE OIL OF GLADNESS ABOVE THY FELLOWS".


In fact, THE entire Book of Psalms is God, THE Son, talking to, praying TO God, THE Father! .It is NOT THAT THE Christ-ones, believe in "three Gods", BUT THAT THE One God,(for different dispensational purposes AND programs), could, did, AND still does, assume "three different dispensational "role forms", of GOD AS A Father, TO THE Gentiles, from Gen 1:1 TO Ex 19:;1-8. GOD AS An Obedient Son. TO THE Jews, until their 3 phase, transitional setting aside of Israel's Old Testament Covenant of Law, by Paul, at Acts 13:46, 18:6, AND 28:28. AND GOD AS THE Holy Spirit Comforter first descending TO "replace" Christ's earthly ministry at THE Jewish Pentecost of Acts Ch 2. AND TO create (our) Mystery Church of Rom 16:25, 26, Eph 3:1-0,(simultaneously) WITH THE foregoing three phase, transitional setting aside of THE Jewish Gospel of THE Circumcision, at Acts 13:46. 18:6, 28:28.

Paul said THAT when Christ's millennial rule "ends", THAT there WILL remain "no further need" for THE foregoing "3 different role forms of THE One God, AND "they", WILL then "merge", INTO "ONE GOD, AND HIS NAME ONE". 1 Cor 15:24-28, WITH Zech 14:9, TO also affirm this.


Their 7th assertion: Physical Manifestation Christianity believes THAT GOD came down TO earth in human form. AS Jesus said. "I, AND MY FATHER ARE ONE" John 10:30. THE Torah states THAT GOD can NOT take any form. "YOU WILL NOT BE ABLE TO SEE MY FACE. FOR NO HUMAN MAY SEE MY FACE AND LIVE" Ex 38:18-20.

"YOU DID NOT SEE MY FORM ON THE DAY THAT I SPOKE TO YOU AT HOREB FROM THE MIDST OF FIRE", Deut 4:13.

AS little AS we know about God's Nature. Judaism HAS always believed THAT GOD is Incorporeal. Meaning THAT HE assumes no physical form. GOD is Eternal. HE is Infinite. Above time AND space. HE CANNOT be born, AND CANNOT die.

Unquote.

My answer? Wrong. THIS Christ-one, believes THAT Christ, 2nd Person Holy Trinity. Chose TO temporarily lay aside His Eternal, divine, gr. En Morphe, i.e. AS THE Eternal, visible Form of God, AND temporarily chose TO take upon Himself, THE Totally Incarnated,(non-Glorious appearing Form) of THE Perfect-God-man, i.e. "IMMANUEL", WHICH BY INTERPRE- TATION IS GOD WITH US", Matt 1:21-23. BUT NEVER did HE take upon Himself any form, nor any degree of hu-manity, i.e. "dirt-manity, AS so attested TO by Paul, in 1 Cor 15:45-50. For AS THE writer of THE Jewish epistle of Hebrews also stated, in Heb 5:9 "HE WAS MADE PERFECT". A fact too lengthy TO (fully cover) in THIS study, BUT WAS His "Kins-man-Redeemer Role" TO Israel, AND all mankind. TO SEEK AND TO SAVE THOSE WHO WERE AND ARE LOST, Rom 9:3, WITH Isa 49:7

Common sense alone should dictate. THAT had Christ, 2nd Person Holy Trinity, NOT laid aside His Gr. En Morphe, i.e. His Eternal Visible Form, of an otherwise "impossible TO look upon" Jehovah God. HE could never have appeared, AS A (visible) DAYS-MAN BE- WEEN GOD AND MAN, called IMMANUEL, GOD WITH US, i.e. In His Perfect God-man Body called Christ-Jesus. No great mystery there, nor a contradiction of THE foregoing related verses in THE Jewish Torah. Jehovah GOD "HAS no visible Form"? Moses, in THAT verse, in context, is addressing THE Nation of Israel. BUT HE HIMSELF DID GET TO SEE JEHOVAH GOD'S PHYSICAL "BACK PARTS"--Ex 33:18-33. One can NOT "see" THE "back parts" of what THE Pharisees say is (a totally invisible) God! God, THE Father IS invisible. Col 1:15, 1 Tim 1:17, Heb 11:27. God, THE Holy Spirit Comforter IS invisible, except, for THE "visible manifestations of THE same, AS at Acts 2:1-4, etc. God, THE Son IS NOT invisible. John 14:7-9, WITH Phil 2:5-8, Heb 1:3. Ask yourself. How could anyone "believe in a God", THAT they could NEVER possibly see"?

Their 8th assertion: Christianity, denies THE eternal relevance of Torah Law. Basing THE concept of THE New Testament on a mistranslation of Jeremiah. In Jer 31:3 THE Hebrew states, "Henei yamií baim, neuí Hasheí VeCharati, brit Chadash". They translate: "BEHOLD, DAYS ARE COMING SAYS THE LORD, WHEN I WILL MAKE A NEW TESTAMENT WITH THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL". "Brit", does NOT mean Testament. Throughout Scripture "Brit" means Covenant. See for example Gen 17:2, 15:8, exodus 24:8, Lev 26:42, Numbers 25:12. It is a fundamental principle of Judaism THAT THE Torah received at Sinai WILL never be changed nor become obsolete. THIS concept is mentioned in THE Torah no less than 24 times, WITH THE words: "THIS IS AN ETERNAL LAW FOR ALL GENERATIONS". (Ex 12:14, 12:17, 12:43, 27:21, 28:443, Lev 3:17, 7:36, 10:9, 16:29, 16:31, 16:34, 17:7, 23:14, 23:21, 23:41, 24:3, Num 10:8, 15:15, 19:10, 19:21, 18:23, 35:29, Deut 29:28). It is absurd TO accept THE Divine origin of THE Torah, yet deny it's eternal relevance. Judaism is a religion of action. It HAS always taught, THAT through THE per- formance of THE commandments, one declares THE belief of THE heart. TO dispense WITH THE legal body of THE Torah AND reduce it TO a book of morals, would cut it down TO less than half it's size. Can THIS really be THE meaning of those words, an eternal law for all generations? Unquote.
So ended THIS Pharisaic Web page.

My closing Answer? Call "it" what one will. Old Covenant. New Testament. Rome, in THE 4th century AD (incorrectly) did THE latter. TO that. THIS author agrees. BUT once again, failure of these modern day Pharisees AND Sadducees,(AS we have shown throughout THIS entire presentation), TO accept what they call THE Christian Bible, BUT WHICH WAS written by Jewish followers of Christ Jesus. Renders ANY such "rebuttals", along WITH THAT supported by their own Jewish Torah--unresolveable, BUT nevertheless--valid ones.

Even Torah's Jeremiah, at Jer 31:31-33. Said THAT Israel's Old Testament Covenant of THE Letter-of-the-Laws-of-Moses, WAS "going TO be replaced" by something, THAT THE so called Christian Bible simply (wrongly labeled) AS A New Testament, rather than New Covenant..

THE Pharisaic "fatal flaw", in their foregoing assertion of "THE Eternalness" of their Old Testament Covenant of Law? Here it is, AS follows:

Despite any AND all of their foregoing verses, purporting TO say THAT very thing. THE FOLLOWING VERSES WILL PROVE, BEYOND ANY CAVIL. THAT IT'S BEING ETERNAL, WAS "STRICTLY CONDITIONAL". i.e.(IF) THOU DO THIS. AND DON'T DO THAT. Ex 19:5.THE Torah, is replete WITH Israel's having repeatedly "broken" AND thus "having abrogated",(their portion) of THAT "legal contract" of Ex 19:7, 8. AND even a first term "law student", knows THAT IF one party TO "a legal contract", chooses TO "break" (their portion) of THAT contract. THE entire contract becomes "null AND void"! Little wonder then THAT THE Old Contract, would eventually, have TO be "replaced", by A New Contract, WHICH BOTH parties TO it, would (then) "keep"--eternally, e.g. Jer 31:31-34, Heb 8:6-13.

In closing, it is of THE utmost importance, TO full verify "THE conditional" aspects of Israel's Old Covenant of Law WITH Jehovah God, at Mt Sinai, ex 19:1-8, where GOD is speaking TO Israel's King Solomon, AS follows:

2 Chron 7:12-22 "AND THE LORD APPEARED TO SOLOMON BY NIGHT, AND SAID UNTO HIM. I HAVE HEAR THY PRAYER , AND HAVE CHOSEN THIS PLACE TO MYSEL FOR AN HOUSE OF SACRIFICE.---(IF), MY PEOPLE, WHICH ARE CALLED BY MY NAME, SHALL HUMBLE THEMSELVES, AND PRAY, AND SEEK MY FACE, AND TURN FROM THEIR WICKED WAYS. (THEN) WILL I HEAR FROM HEAVENAND WILL FORGIVE THEIR SINS, AND I WILL HEAL THEIR LAND. NOW, MINE EYES SHALL BE OPEN, AND MINE EARS ATTENT UNTO THE PRAYER THAT IS MADE IN THIS PLACE. (FOR NOW) HAVE I CHOSEN AND SANCTIFIED THIS HOUSE, THAT MY NAME MAY BE THERE FOREVER. AND MINE EYES AND MINE HEART SHALL BE THERE PERPET- UALLY. (AND AS FOR THEE). Here it comes Pharisees. (IF), THOU WILT WALK BEFORE ME (AS) DAVID THY FATHER WALKED. (AND DO), ACCORDING TO (ALL) THAT I HAVE COMMANDED THEE. (AND), SHALT OBSERVE MY STATUTES AND MY JUDGEMENTS. (THEN), WILL I STABLISH THE THRONE OF THY KINGDOM.ACCORDING AS I HAVE COVENANTED WITH DFAVID, THY FATHER, SAYING. THERE SHALL NOT FAIL THEE A MAN TO BE RULER IN ISRAEL. Now watch THIS again Pharisees. (BUT), IF YE TURN AWAY, AND FORSAKE MY STATUTES AND MY COMMANDMENTS, WHICH I HAVE SET BFORE (YOU). AND SHALL GO AND SERVE OTHER GODS AND WORSHIP THEM. (THEN), WILL I PLUCK THEN UP BY THE ROOTS OUT OF MY LAND HICH I HAVE GIVEN THEM, (AND), THIS HOUSE WHICH I HAVE SANCTIFIED FOR MY NAME, WILL I CAST OUT OF MY SIGHT, AND WILL MAKE IT FOR A PROVERB AND A BYWORD AMONG ALL NATIONS. AND THIS HOUSE WHICH IS HIGH SHALL BE AN ASTONISHMENT TO EVERY ONE THAT PASSETH BY IT. SO THAT HE SHALL SAY. WHY HATH THE LORD DONE (THIS) UNTO THIS LAND AND UNTO THIS HOUSE?

AND IT SHALL BE ANSWERED. BECAUSE THEY FORSOOK THE LORD GOD OF THEIR FATHERS WHICH BROUGHT THEM FORTH OUT OF THE LAND OF EGYPT, AND LAID HOLD ON OTHER GODS, AND WORSHIPPED THEM, AND SERVED THEM. (THEREFORE), HATH HE BROUGHT ALL THIS EVIL UPON THEM". Yes. Israel's Covenant AND Israel's Kingdom would indeed "be eternal",--"IF". . ...AND one need only read 1st Kings Chapter 11.etc. TO see THAT Solomon violated every commanded "conditional" portion of THE foregoing Godly pronouncement TO him, AS HE led THE Nation AND also many of Israelites down through THE ages, TO openly reject it.

From Exodus onward, until Israel's rebellious (last King) Zedekiah. Israel, repeatedly "broke" their Old Covenant of Law of Mt Sinai, ex 19:1-8, AND went INTO 70 years of Babylonian captivity, 2 Chron 36:11-21. From then, until THIS present day. Israel NOT only lost her king, BUT also her(earthly) Davidic kingdom, AND their Old Covenant of Law,
AS follows:

Hosea 3:4, 5 "FOR THE CHILDREN OF ISRAEL SHALL ABIDE MANY DAYS WITHOUT A KING, AND WITHOUT A PRINCE, AND WITHOUT AN EPHOD, AND WITHOUT A TERAPHIM, AFTERWARD, SHALL THE CHILDREN OF ISRAEL RETURN AND SEEK THE LORD THEIR GOD, AND DAVID THEIR KING. AND SHALL FEAR THE LORD AND HIS GOODNESS, "IN THE LATTER DAYS".

THAT THE Old Covenant, AND it's Davidic earthly monarchy, WAS indeed "taken away" from National Israel, WAS also confirmed by Christ's Jewish Apostles at Acts 1:6, when they asked their risen Messiah: "LORD, WILT THOU AT THIS TIME (RESTORE AGAIN) THE KINGDOM TO ISRAEL"? WHICH of course HE did NOT (then) have any intention of doing, AS shown in His reply TO them.

AS far AS THE Pharisaic claim THAT THE answer TO one's "righteousness" in THE sight of God. Is dependent upon their "keeping" of God's Commandments, given TO Moses AND THE Jewish Nation of Israel, at Mt Sinai, ex 19:1-8. In THE (Jewish) epistle of John. HE stated TO ISRAEL AND actually TO all human beings, who "try TO keep it":

"DID NOT MOSES GIVE YOU THE LAW? AND (NONE OF YOU) KEEPETH THE LAW". A fact also verified in THE Torah, AS follows concerning "them":

Ps 14:1-3 "THE FOOL HATH SAID IN HIS HEART, THERE IS NO GOD. THEY ARE CORRUPT. THEY HAVE DONE ABOMINABLE WORKS. THERE IS NONE THAT DOETH GOD. THE LORD LOOKED DOWN FROM HEAVEN UPON THE CHILD- REN OF MEN. TO SEE IF THERE WERE (ANY) THAT DID UNDERSTAND AND SEEK GOD. THEY ARE (ALL) GONE ASIDE. THEY ARE (ALL TOGETHER) BECOME FILTHY. THERE IS (NONE) THAT DOETH GOOD. NO,(NOT ONE)".

See those same words of THE Torah repeated in Paul's (Jewish epistle) of Romans 3:9-29. where ALL, should heed Paul's "remedy", for it.

Wellington


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