If so, man has no will in Salvation? -- It is God's will to save whosoever
will believe. It is not God's will to save a man apart from his willingness,
Rev. 22:17.
You say that man has a will to be saved. So, it is also man's will
to be saved? -- It is God's will to save the willing, not the unwilling.
God has given men the freewill either to accept Him or not. To be
saved in God's will, he must be willing to follow God's will. Do
you mean that God will save the unwilling or the ones who will to be proud?
But James 4:6 says, "God resists the proud, but gives grace to the
humble." Does God want all men to be humble or He wants others to be proud?
If man has no freewill , then all men will become humble.
Is Faith in God God's will or man's? -- It is God's will for man
to exercise faith in God but God has given men the freedom of choice either
to follow God's will or man. If man cannot disobey God's will, then
even the elect cannot commit sin because it is not God's will for the Christian
to practice sin. Not all men do God's will (Matt. 7:21; Jn. 7:17).
Whose function is faith, God or man? Who must exercise faith, God or man?
Faith is man's function, directed to God by the will or willingness
of man under divine grace or the influence of the Spirit.
If man must do it, then it is works because of the word "do"? -- Do you
believe in Christ? If so, have you worked? (Acts 16:30-31). Is it
God's will for you to believe? Can you do God's will? Is it a work
when you did believe in Christ?? If you cannot believe, then you are still
an unbeliever until now.
Since faith is God's gift, then election is unconditional because it is
God who gives the faith? -- It is conditional because the giving of faith
is conditioned upon man's hearing of God's word and his humble response
under the Spirit's reproofs. (Prov. 29:1; John 16:8; Rom.
10:13-14,17; James 4:6,2:5; I Cor. 1:26-27). If the giving of faith
is not conditioned on humility, then the proud will be given the greater
grace to believe. (James 4:6) Is there a proud who have faith? If
the God-given ability to exercise faith is not conditioned on humility,
then all men will have faith because God is pleased with faith (Heb. 11:6).
Does God want all men to believe in Christ or He wants some men to reject
Him? Is He the author of faith? or the author also of the unbelief of some
men? If election is unconditional, then He would elect all men so that
He can give them faith because He is pleased with faith.
What is man's part to be saved? -- Clarification: What kind of part,
1) In the work of providing salvation, or 2) In the responsibility or decision
of accepting salvation by exercising faith?
If man has a part in the salvation of man, then salvation is not 100% of
God? -- What kind of percentage, of decision or of works? Do you
mean that man cannot exercise the decision of faith to be saved? Is it
God who decides for man to believe upon Himself? If so, God will
decide in behalf of all men to believe in Christ, because God is pleased
with faith, Heb. 11:6. Then no one will go to hell.
If man has a part in the salvation of man, then salvation does not belong
to God 100% and so man can have the credit for the 50% of his part, and
he gets some glory for himself? -- Man cannot take a part in providing
salvation for salvation is God's work. Man was given by God
the freedom of decision to exercise faith and it's not a work. (Rom.
11:6; 4:4-5; Eph. 2:8-9).