How is Christ the "End of the Law''?
 A Closer Look at Romans 10:4

by Doug Ward, PhD  

Sometimes a passage of Scripture is used so often as a proof text that it becomes a sort of slogan and takes on a life of its own, independent of its original context and meaning. One example is the famous phrase from Rom. 10:4, "Christ is the end of the law." This phrase is often used by Christians, especially those from the Lutheran and Dispensationalist traditions, to support the idea that since Christ has come, the laws of the Old Testament (OT) no longer have any relevance for us.

However, the meaning of Romans 10:4 is not as obvious as one might think, because telos, the Greek word for "end" in this verse, can be translated into English in several ways. One translation of telos is "termination point'' (see for example Strong's Concordance). If telos means "termination point'' in Rom. 10:4, then Paul may indeed be proclaiming that Christ's coming has brought some law to an end. 

In contrast, telos can also be rendered "goal'' or "purpose''. If telos has this meaning in Rom. 10:4, then the verse may not be making a negative statement about "the law'' at all.

It turns out that each of these interpretations of telos in Romans 10:4 is currently upheld by large numbers of Christians. Those who believe that telos means "goal'' or "purpose'' in this verse can point to scriptures  like I Tim. 1:5, Rom. 6:21-22, or James 5:11, in which telos clearly has that meaning. On the other hand, those who read telos as "termination point'' in Rom. 10:4 can cite Mark 3:26, Luke 1:33, and Heb. 7:3, where this same Greek word refers to something coming to an end.   

A further issue that must be tackled in understanding  Rom. 10:4 is the scope of the Greek word nomos, which is translated "law'' in English.  Does nomos refer here to the laws given at Mt. Sinai, to the Pentateuch, or more broadly to the revelation of God's will given in the entire Old Testament?  Since it is the Greek analogue of the Hebrew word Torah,  nomos can have any of these meanings, depending upon the context.  

How can we determine what Paul was trying to say in this verse?  To decide such a scriptural controversy, one ideally should  take into account  three kinds of information:

  1. The history of the way the passage in question has been interpreted by the Christian community through the centuries.

  2. The ways in which a questionable word is used in other texts, especially other biblical texts with similar grammatical constructions.

  3. The meaning of the passage in its immediate context and in the larger context of the book in which it appears. 

Fortunately, all three types of information about Romans 10:4 are available in the book Christ the End of the Law:  Romans10.4 in Pauline Perspective (JSOT Press, Sheffield, England, 1985), the doctoral dissertation of Robert Badenas, an evangelical New Testament scholar. In this article, I will summarize Badenas findings, which present a clear resolution to our question about the meaning of the phrase "Christ is the end of the law.''

A Brief History of the Interpretation of Romans 10:4

To put the current debate about the meaning of Romans 10:4 in context, it will be helpful to look at the history of how this verse has been understood by Christians. Dr. Badenas surveys this history in the first chapter of his book. It is especially interesting to see how Rom. 10:4 was explained by the early church fathers. Being much closer than we are to Paul's own setting, patristic sources may be more closely in touch with the concerns that led Paul to write his epistle to the Romans. 

A major part of the early church's message was its witness to the Jewish community that Jesus was the promised Messiah who fulfilled the prophecies and types of the Old Testament. The church saw the gospels and epistles as complementing and consummating the OT revelation. In the second century, it defended this understanding against the heretic Marcion, who rejected the entire OT, and against the Gnostics, who also took an antinomian approach. In the debate against the Marcionites and Gnostics, Christian apologists like Tertullian, Origen, and Irenaeus often used Rom. 10:4 to defend the unity of God's revelation and the continuity between the OT and Christ.  They and other church fathers tended to view nomos in Rom. 10:4 as the entire OT and telos as fulfillment, completion, or consummation.  In fact, some of the early Greek fathers---e.g., Hippolytus (c. 170-c. 236)---used pleroma, the Greek word for "fulfillment,'' interchangeably with telos in discussing Romans 10:4.  Eusebius (260-c. 340) connected Rom. 10:4 with Matt. 5:17, where Jesus said that He came not to destroy the law, but to fulfill it. 

These trends in the interpretation of Romans 10:4 continued in the fourth and fifth centuries.  Badenas reports (p. 11) that Athanasius (c. 296-372) "appeals to Rom. 10.4 when he wants to prove the prophetic character of the OT as pointing to Christ, and when he wants to state that the law has not been abolished.''  Cyril of Alexandria (c. 370-444) interpreted telos as "purpose'' and nomos as "Scripture.''  To explain that Christ's coming had not ended the usefulness of the OT, Cyril quoted Matt. 5:17 and used the analogy that the addition of colors to an artist's preliminary drawing did not destroy the drawing.  Jerome (c. 345-419), the famous translator of the Bible into Latin, saw Romans 10:4 in terms of fulfillment of prophecy. Augustine (354-430) quoted Rom. 10:4 more than thirty times in his commentary on the Psalms, where he viewed finis, the Latin word for telos, as "purpose.''

In medieval times, the interpretations of the church fathers were collected and preserved.  Scriptures were believed to have multiple levels of meaning, and the Latin words consummatio, intentio, completio, and perfectio were often given as possible Latin synonyms of telos in Romans 10:4.  None of these words has the sense of "termination.'' 

So far in our historical survey, we have seen little evidence of a controversy over Romans 10:4.  Before the time of the Protestant Reformation, theologians generally interpreted nomos in this verse as referring broadly to the entire OT and telos as meaning "goal,'' "purpose,'' "fulfillment,'' or "completion.''  Badenas notes only a few examples of commentators---e.g., Peter Abelard (1079-1142)--- who connected Rom. 10:4 with termination or abrogation of an OT legal code.  When theologians made negative statements about the laws of the OT, they used other verses to support their positions. 

How, then, did the controversy over Romans 10:4 begin? It did not begin with Martin Luther and John Calvin, the Protestant Reformers, who both read Rom.10:4 as saying that everything in Scripture points to Christ.  Indirectly, though, Luther's theology of sharp dichotomy between law and gospel is at the root of the controversy.  In the generations following Luther and Calvin, there was much doctrinal debate between Catholics and Protestants and among the various types of Protestants.  These debates led different denominations to develop creeds and systematic theologies, and in doing so to look for proof texts to support their positions. For Lutherans, who had a negative view of OT law, it was natural to see the book of Romans in terms of Catholic-Protestant debates about faith and works, and in particular to seize upon Romans 10:4 as a proof text in support of the view that the OT law had been abrogated. As a result, Rom.10:4 became an antinomian slogan over the next few centuries.    

A later trend that supported a negative view of OT law and an antinomian reading of Rom. 10:4 was the nineteenth-century belief that mankind had been progressing and evolving over the centuries from a primitive state to a more enlightened position. Many nineteenth-century theologians came to view the religion of Israel as primitive and outmoded and saw Rom. 10:4 as a statement about the obsolescence of OT law. Badenas reports that such an interpretation of Rom. 10:4 became predominant by the end of the nineteenth century, although there still were many who viewed telos in this verse as "goal'' or "purpose'' rather than as "termination point.''  The debate has continued to the present time, with most commentators basing their interpretations on the theological presuppositions that they bring to their reading of the verse.    

The Meanings of "Telos'' in Greek Literature       

Having traced the history of the current controversy over Romans 10:4, we can gain further insight into what telos means in that verse by looking at the ways in which telos is used elsewhere in the NT and in other Greek sources. Badenas devotes the second chapter of his book to a careful study of this Greek word. 

In classical Greek literature, telos had a wide range of meanings, including "fulfillment,'' "authority,'' "issue,'' "goal,'' and "tax.''  It may have originally come from a root word meaning "highest point'' or "turning point.''  In general, when telos was used to refer to a future thing, it denoted the object, goal, or purpose of that thing, as in the finish line of a race, the reward for a performance, a personal goal, or an ethical purpose. When it referred to a past thing, on the other hand, it stood for the completion or fulfillment of the purpose of that thing. Telos also appeared sometimes in a prepositional phrase eis telos, which functions as an adverb to mean "completely,'' "totally,'' or "to the uttermost.''  In these various uses of telos, the word did not often connote the termination of something. 

The word telos was often used in phrases, like the one in Romans 10:4, that spoke of the "telos of something.'' In such cases, it rarely implied  the ending of that thing. For example, the phrase telos mythos meant the essential point,  crux or climax of a myth or story.  Telos bios (literally, "end of life'') occasionally meant "death,'' but more often it indicated the consummation or outcome of a life.

The writings of Plutarch (c. 46-120 AD) contain a phrase whose grammatical structure exactly parallels that of the phrase "Christ is the end of the law'' in Romans 10:4.  This phrase has the English translation, "Pleasure is the object of desire.'' (Amatorius 750 E) Here the word translated "object'' is telos.  This phrase is saying that a person's desires are directed toward the goal of experiencing pleasure. 

Interestingly, when telos was used with nomos in ancient Greek literature, it meant the object, goal, or ratification of a law, not its nullification or cessation.  For instance, in his collection of essays  Moralia (780 E), Plutarch used telos and nomos together in a sentence that is translated, "Justice is the aim of the law.'' In other words, laws are made for the purpose of achieving justice; and justice, of course, does not cancel those laws.

Telos in Greek Philosophy

The word telos is probably best known as a technical term in Greek philosophy.  Beginning with Socrates (469-399 BC), Plato (c. 429-347 BC) and Aristotle (384-322 BC), philosophers pondered questions about the ultimate purpose of the universe and everything in it, especially the purpose of human life. They used the word telos for a thing's ultimate purpose or reason for existence, and their investigation of these ultimate questions formed the basis for a branch of philosophy called teleology. Clearly, this philosophical use of telos does not in any way involve termination. In fact, Aristotle wrote at one point that "telos does not mean any kind of termination, but only the best.'' (See Badenas, p. 45.)   

In the centuries after Plato and Aristotle, teleological questions continued to be discussed and debated by philosophers. Of particular interest for our study is the work of the Jewish philosopher Philo of Alexandria (c. 30 BC-AD 45), whose life overlapped with that of the apostle Paul. The word telos appears some 204 times in the writings of Philo, reflecting his interest in teleology.   Philo often used telos  to discuss the aim, goal, object, purpose, or climax of something, especially the purpose of life. He described the highest purpose or telos of life in several ways, including:  to be "fully conformed to God,'' to "follow God,'' to seek "the wisdom of God,'' and to "aim at the glory of God.''  He saw the law of God as a means of approaching the ultimate goal of walking closely with God.  It is quite possible that Paul's understanding of the word telos was informed by the teleological writings of his contemporary Philo and other philosophers.    

Telos in the Bible:  Does Temporal Imply Terminal?  

The word telos is used about 160 times in the Greek Septuagint translation of the OT, and it appears some 41 times in the NT.  The range of meanings of telos in these biblical texts reflects the different uses of the word that we have encountered already in discussing other Greek writings. 

There is one notable difference, though, in the way telos is used in the Bible.  In other Greek texts, telos is not often used in a temporal sense---that is, it rarely refers to the completion of a period of time. However, in the Septuagint and the NT, telos is used temporally in several instances.  For example, in Judges 11:39 ("And it came to pass at the end of two months....''), telos is the word for "end'' in the Septuagint; and in Daniel 6:26, 7:26, and 9:26, telos is again the word for "end'' in the prepositional phrase rendered "unto the end'' in the KJV.  In some NT passages, telos is used for the end of this age, the time of Christ's return (Matt. 24:6, 14: I Peter 4:7; I Cor. 1:8; 15:24).

Why is telos used temporally more often in the Bible than in other Greek writings?  The answer probably lies in the biblical view of history and time.  In the Bible and the Judaeo-Christian worldview, time and history have purposes; the completion of a period of time marks the fulfillment of God's purpose for that period. Thus the temporal uses of telos in the Bible usually have more to do with teleology than with termination. In particular, the end of the age is a climax of history, the fulfillment of history's purpose, and the goal to which history is pointing.  It is a main turning point in history, not its termination. 

There are also some occurrences of telos that have been translated temporally in English versions of the NT but may not be primarily temporal in meaning.  We have already noted that telos can appear in prepositional phrases (e.g., eis telos) that function as adverbs meaning "completely,'' "totally,'' or "to the greatest degree''.  One biblical example is 1 Thes. 2:16, where the KJV translates eis telos as "to the uttermost.''  Other such phrases are translated "unto the end'' in the KJV, but many of them can be interpreted qualitatively as well as temporally.  For instance, in 2 Cor. 1:13, the phrase "to the end'' would be better translated "fully,'' as it is in the NIV.  Another example is John 13:1, where we read that Jesus loved his disciples "unto the end.''  Certainly Jesus loved His disciples until the end of his physical life, but it is also true that Jesus showed His love to them in the greatest and fullest degree on that Passover day. Some other examples to reconsider in this light are Heb. 3:14; 6:11; Rev. 2:26; and Matt. 10:22; 24:13.

Telos in Paul's Epistles

Since the focus of our study is Rom. 10:4, it is especially relevant to examine Paul's use of the word telos in his epistles. Including Rom. 10:4, telos appears fourteen times in Paul's writings (not counting the book of Hebrews, whose authorship is disputed). Does it connote "termination'' in any of the other thirteen cases?

Two of these instances of telos occur in the same verse---Rom. 13:7---where the word means  'tax'' or "tribute.''  We have already mentioned two other verses (1 Thes. 2:16, 2 Cor. 1:13) in which it means "fully'' or "completely''; and two more (1 Cor 1:8; 15:24) that refer to the end of this age, which is the culmination of history and not its termination. 

Three of the remaining seven examples (I Tim. 1:5, Rom. 6:21, 22) have a grammatical structure identical to that of Rom. 10:4, so they may be the most significant ones for our purposes. In 1 Tim 1:5, telos clearly means "goal'' or "purpose.''  n the other hand, Rom. 6:21, 22 contrast the outcomes of a sinful life and of a righteous life; telos in these verses refers to a person's fate or destiny.  In the case of a wicked person, there is a sense in which that destiny is a termination, since the existence of the wicked will be terminated in the lake of fire (see Heb. 6:8, where telos appears again). Mainly, though, this use of telos is more teleological than terminal. These verses are talking about the climax or culmination of a life more than its termination.    

What about the final four cases?  Two of them (2 Cor. 11:15, Phil. 3:19) refer again to the destiny or outcome of a life, as in Rom. 6:21-22.  Another, I Cor. 10:11, refers to Christians as those "upon whom the ends of the world are come.'' (KJV) Here the word for "ends'' is tela, the plural of telos.  Some understand this phrase to refer to the "time of the end,'' but if it does, it would be the only known example of the plural form tela having an eschatological meaning. In addition, the context of I Cor. 10:11 does not seem to involve the end of this age so much as the fulfillment in Christ of types from Israel's exodus experience. Some scholars have suggested that "aims of the times,''  "fulfillment of the ages'' (NIV), or  "wealth of the ages'' would convey the meaning of the verse better than "ends of the world'' (Badenas, p. 74). In any event, 1 Cor. 10:11 is speaking of fulfillment rather than termination.

The remaining example is 2 Cor. 3:13,  part of a chapter in which Paul defends his ministry, showing its superiority to the (temporary) Mosaic ministry.  In this chapter, Paul illustrates the glory of Moses' ministry (2 Cor 3:7) by referring to Moses' practice of wearing a veil over his face when he addressed the Israelites after talking with God (Ex. 34:29-35).  Moses' face glowed after his meetings with God, and he wore this veil because of the people's reluctance to approach him in such a radiant state. In the verse in question, verse 13, Paul writes that Moses "put a vail over his face, that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished.'' (KJV)  Here it does not seem to make much sense to read "end'' as "termination.''  Moses would not have been trying to conceal from the Israelites the fact that his ministry was temporary, and since the ending of that ministry was over 1400 years away, it would also not have been possible for them to "stedfastly look'' for that long a period of time.  Dr. Walter C. Kaiser comments,

"The telos here cannot mean the `termination' or `full stop,' for the Mosaic and Jewish administration was just beginning and there was no danger of the people gazing on it right up to the end of its duration.  Rather, Paul meant the `ultimate significance,' or `goal.'  Thus, not as a subterfuge ... did Moses place the veil over his face.  Rather, it was as a prophetically enacted parable that he did it.  He wanted the people of Israel to realize that their iniquities had rendered them unable, and unworthy, to behold such glory in its `ultimate significance.' They, like Moses, would need to turn to the Lord if they were to look intently at the glory of the Lord.'' 1        

This passage is another controversial one, and entire books have been devoted to it as well.  Suffice it to say here that the meaning of ``end'' in 2 Cor. 3:13 seems to be teleological instead of terminal.      

In summary, the primary senses of telos in ancient Greek writings, including the NT, are those of goal, purpose, fulfillment, completion, or climax. This is true in particular in Paul's epistles.  The three NT verses in which telos clearly refers to something coming to an end---Mark 3:26, Luke 1:33, and Heb. 7:3---are the exception rather than the rule.

But what about Romans 10:4?  To conclusively establish the meaning of telos in Rom. 10:4, we need to closely examine the place of this verse within Paul's epistle to the Romans, especially Chapters 9-11. Badenas investigates the context of Romans 10:4 in the final chapter of his definitive study. 

The Broader Context of Romans 10:4

From a reading of the entire book of Romans, one can infer two things about the composition of the first-century congregation in Rome.  Since Paul sometimes addresses his remarks specifically to Gentile Christians (Rom. 1:5-6, 13-16; 11:13, 17-28) or discusses his mission as apostle to the Gentiles (15:15-18), it is likely that the congregation at Rome consisted largely of Gentile Christians. On the other hand, one of the main issues that Paul discusses in his epistle is the place of Jews and Gentiles in the church, implying that this congregation included both Jews and Gentiles.

One can also draw some conclusions about the issues and challenges faced by the Church of God at Rome. Paul stresses church unity in the latter chapters of Romans (12:3-10; 15:5-7), indicating his concern about tensions between different groups within the congregation.  In particular, there was undoubtedly friction between Gentile and Jewish believers. It may be significant that Paul makes a point of asking for prayers for the success of his upcoming trip to deliver an offering from the Greek churches to the brethren in Jerusalem (15:25-33). For Paul, this offering could have symbolized the unity among Jewish and Gentile Christians and congregations that he hoped would prevail.

In his epistle, Paul confronts the questions and problems of both groups.  He admonishes the Gentiles not to be arrogant toward their Jewish brethren (11:18) and asserts that the Jews still have an integral part to play in God's plan (1:16; 3:1-3; Chapter 11). He assures them that God's Word and promises have not failed; indeed, the fact that many Jews had rejected Christ was part of God's plan and had been prophesied in advance (9:32-33; 11:7-12). He also opposes antinomian ideas (3:31, Chapters 6-7).  These remarks of Paul's suggest that some in Rome questioned the continuing relevance of the Scriptures and the status of God's promises to Israel.  Apparently the beginnings of the antijudaic attitude that would later emerge in the Marcionite heresy had already surfaced in Rome. 

On the other hand, Paul stresses the equality of Jewish and Gentile Christians in God's sight (Chapter 2; 3:21-23; 10:8-12). All had sinned, and all could be saved by God's grace through faith in Jesus Christ.  The clear promise of the Scriptures that salvation would come to the Gentiles (15:8-12) had begun to be fulfilled in their day. Paul may have reminded the Romans of these things for the benefit of  Jewish believers who were uncomfortable with the great influx of uncircumcised Gentiles into the church. 

One of the main themes of the epistle is Paul's assertion that the gospel he preached was consistent with God's revelation in the OT; in fact, it was the fulfillment of God's promises to Israel.  To substantiate his claims, Paul quotes the scriptures 75 times, more often than anywhere else in his writings.  Forty-five of those quotations occur in chapters 9-11, the climactic section in which Rom. 10:4 appears.  In both chapters nine and ten, Paul first quotes the Pentateuch, then goes on to cite the witness of the Prophets and the Writings.  By following this pattern, Paul seems to be saying, "See, my message is backed up by the entirety of scripture.''  Given this emphasis on the message of all of scripture in Rom. 9-11, it is likely that nomos in Rom. 10:4 refers to the whole of God's OT revelation rather than just to the Mosaic law. It would also be incongruous, in the midst of such a discussion, for Paul to say that part or all of God's inspired word was no longer relevant. Thus the broader context of Romans 10:4 supports the interpretation of the early church fathers:  Christ is the goal or fulfillment of the whole OT, not the "termination point of the law.''        

A Closer Look at Romans 9:30-10:3

 Having discussed the overall message of the book of Romans, let us now see how Romans 10:4 fits into its immediate context in Romans 9-10. In Romans 9, Paul expresses his sorrow at the fact that most of his fellow Jews had not recognized Jesus as the Messiah, despite the many blessings God had given them (v. 1-5). He then goes on to explain that this state of affairs did not mean that God's word or plan had failed. God's calling had always been based on His mercy and was not an inherited right.  Furthermore, the calling of many Gentiles, along with a "remnant'' of Israel, had been prophesied in the scriptures (v. 26-27). The presence of this remnant was further proof that God was not yet finished with Israel (see Rom. 11). 

Paul summarizes the situation of  Gentiles and Jews with regard to the gospel in v. 30-33(KJV):

"What shall we say then? That the Gentiles, which followed not after righteousness, have attained to righteousness, even the righteousness which is of faith.  But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness. Wherefore? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone; As it is written, Behold, I lay in Sion a stumblingstone and rock of offence: and whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed.''

In this passage, Paul uses vocabulary from athletic events. The Greek words for ``followed'', "attained'', "stumbled'', and ``be ashamed'' are all words associated with foot races. (In particular, the word for "attained'' is a form of the Greek verb katalambano, which Paul uses in 1 Cor. 9:24 in another racing analogy.) Here to "follow'' is to run hard for a prize, to "attain'' is to experience the thrill of victory, and to "be ashamed'' is to feel the agony of defeat. Interestingly, the word telos a few verses later in Rom. 10:4  could also be part of Paul's analogy, because telos is a word commonly used for the finish line of a race. If so, this is another piece of evidence in support of a teleological reading of Rom. 10:4.        

Notice that "righteousness'' (Greek dikaiosune) is the prize achieved by the Gentiles in the race.  This is a word that appears some thirty times in the book of Romans, and we can learn much about its meaning by seeing how it is used throughout the epistle. For example,  Rom. 4:3, in its quoting of Gen. 15:6, associates dikaiosune with the Hebrew word tsedaqah. This Hebrew word is used in the OT for God's redemptive activity and is related to God's faithfulness to His promises and his covenant relationship with His people (Gen. 15:1-6; Isa. 51:1-8; Rom. 4:1-12). Paul often speaks of righteousness in connection with God's fairness in including the Gentiles (Rom. 1:16-17; 3:21-31). Righteousness is announced in the gospel of Christ (Rom. 1:16-17) and has been proclaimed in the law and the prophets (3:5-6, 21). The coming and work of Christ are central to it (3:24-26, 10:12). 

So when Paul says the Gentile Christians "have attained to righteousness,'' he means that they have received salvation by God's grace, which is granted impartially to both Jews and Gentiles through Jesus Christ. Paul says that the Jews, on the other hand, had been pursuing a different goal---the "law of righteousness''---but had not reached it. To understand what Paul is getting at, we should first note that the word for ``law'' here is nomos, the same word used for "law'' in Romans 10:4.  As I have argued already, the context of  Romans 9-11, which emphasizes the unity of scripture in its announcement of the gospel, points to an interpretation of "nomos'' as the entire revelation of God's will in the OT.  Badenas (p. 104)  suggests that this "law of righteousness'' is "the Torah viewed from the perspective of the righteousness it promises, aims at, or bears witness to.''

The next two verses elaborate on the reasons for Israel's failure.  Paul says that Israel has "stumbled at that stumblingstone'' and alludes to two prophecies (Isa. 8:14; 28:16) about a stumbling block and a foundation stone. These passages from Isaiah have always been understood by Christians as messianic prophecies (e.g., I Peter 2:6-8). Thus Paul describes Israel's stumbling as a failure to recognize Jesus as Messiah. 

And how had Israel, which had been the recipient and guardian of God's word (Rom. 3:2), managed to lose sight of the good news announced in that word?  In v. 32, Paul answers, "Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law.''  In those days, many Jews took nationalistic pride in their status as children of Abraham and protectors of God's Torah. They greatly valued the "works of the law''---those things which set them apart from other nations, like circumcision, the biblical dietary laws, and the Sabbath.  But in doing so, Paul is saying, they had made God's word an end in itself and failed to see that that word pointed to Jesus Christ and the gospel.

In Paul's racetrack analogy, Israel had stumbled (but not permanently fallen---Rom. 11:11, 25-26) and been overtaken because it had pursued the wrong goal. In their pride in the way Torah distinguished them from other nations, the Israelites had not recognized Jesus, the living Torah, waiting at the finish line with salvation for them and all other nations. 

When we carefully examine the verses leading up to Romans 10:4, we can see that the main subject of discussion is not the current status of an OT legal code. Paul does not fault his people for their devotion to Torah; in fact, he goes on to compliment their "zeal for God'' in Romans 10:2. However, Paul says that their zeal was "not according to knowledge.''  The Jews had faithfully looked to God to see what they should do, but most had not discerned what God was doing. In Rom. 10:4, Paul summarizes what Israel had missed:  Christ, with  His saving grace for all believers, was the culmination, purpose, and goal of Torah. 

How Does Romans 10:5-8 Fit In?

We have seen that the discussion leading up to Romans 10:4 strongly supports a teleological interpretation of this verse. There is additional corroboration for such a reading in Romans 10:4 itself, where Paul uses Christos, the Greek word for Messiah, to designate Jesus. This word emphasizes Jesus' role as the Savior promised throughout the OT.   

To complete our exegesis, we will need to understand how the verses that come after Romans 10:4 fit into the picture. In Romans 10:5-8, Paul quotes two passages from the Pentateuch to support his statement that "Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.'' But how exactly these quotations are related to v. 4 has been a matter of some debate. 

Some have explained v. 5-8 as a contrast between salvation by works and salvation by faith.  However, there are serious problems with such an explanation. For one thing, there is no concept of salvation resulting merely from works in the Bible or in Judaism; Paul himself emphasizes in Rom. 4 that faith has also always been necessary for salvation, citing Abraham's example. Second, if Paul is making a contrast here, then he would be, in effect, pitting one scripture against another by using two OT passages in support of opposing ideas. This would seem to undercut Paul's argument for the unity of Scripture. Throughout this section of his epistle, he tends to use two or more texts to back up each of his points (e.g., 9:25-27, 33; 10:11-13, 16-18, 19-21; 11:8-9, 26-27). 

One thing that leads English-speaking readers to believe that Rom. 10:5-8 is making a contrast is the presence of the conjunction "But'' at the beginning of v. 6. It turns out, though, that the Greek particle translated "but'' in v.6 (KJV) can also be rendered "and,'' as it is in verse 10. Therefore it is possible that Paul is not making a contrast at all here; instead, he may once again be citing two texts to support the same idea. 

Let's look at Romans 10:5-8 more closely, beginning with verse 5: 

"For Moses describeth the righteousness which is of the law, That the man which doeth those things shall live by them.''

Here Paul is quoting Lev. 18:5, a verse which implies that God's commandments are a gift of abundant life to those who live by them. In rabbinic thought, this verse is quoted to show the universality of the blessings of obedience. The rabbis interpreted the phrase ``the man'' in Lev. 18:5 as a reference to _any man_, Jew or Gentile. For example, Badenas (p. 121) notes that "Rabbi Meir (c. AD 150)  quotes Lev. 18:5 to prove that a Gentile who lives according to the law is to be regarded as highly as a high priest, and will also share in the promises of the Torah....'' 

Although Rabbi Meir's words were committed to writing at least a century after Paul, rabbinic traditions are often based on oral traditions that were passed down over generations. Thus Paul may well have been aware (perhaps through his teacher Gamaliel) of this reading of Lev. 18:5, which certainly ties in well with the rest of Romans 10. In Rom. 10:4, 9-13, Paul stresses the universality of God's offer of salvation---God's righteousness is for "all who believe.'' Paul seems to be quoting Lev. 18:5 to show that this wonderful state of affairs was alluded to in the OT. 

In Romans 10:6-8, Paul quotes another passage from the Pentateuch, Deut. 30:12-14. These verses describe the accessibility of God's word, and Paul applies them to emphasize the accessibility of the Word personified, Jesus Christ.  Taken together, Lev. 18:5 and Deut. 30:12-14 convey the message that God's way will bring life to all those who walk in it, and that way is not hard to discover.  Paul says that the way referred to in these passages is the way of faith in Jesus Christ.  He is identifying the ``righteousness which is of the law'' (i.e., the salvation first announced in the OT) and the ``righteousness which is of faith'' rather than contrasting them.       

When we look more closely at the contexts of Lev. 18:5 and Deut. 30:12-14, some clear similarities are apparent, which is a further indication that Paul intends these two references to complement each other.  In particular, both Lev. 18 and Deut. 30 speak of the blessings of walking with God, and Deut. 30:16 makes a statement very similar to Lev. 18:5.  In addition, some important themes relating to salvation by faith are present in both Deut. 30 and Lev. 17-18.  Deut. 30:6 speaks of circumcision of the heart (discussed by Paul in Rom. 2:29), and Lev. 17:11 discusses the role of blood in making atonement and giving life.    

The End of this Article               

In his excellent dissertation, Dr. Badenas presents an overwhelming wealth of evidence that Rom. 10:4 speaks of Christ as the goal, purpose, culmination, and fulfillment of the entire OT. The status of the Mosaic law for NT believers is a separate issue not directly addressed in this verse. Upon considering all the evidence, one wonders why there was ever a controversy over Rom. 10:4 in the first place.

But why is it important to resolve this controversy? Why write a lengthy article, let alone a doctoral dissertation, about a single verse of the Bible? There are several reasons why I have found this study to be of value. 

First, Badenas' work illustrates a model for biblical exegesis. To determine the meaning of a difficult passage of scripture, one should consider that passage in its biblical and historical context, investigate questionable words thoroughly, and find out how the passage has been interpreted by the community of faith through the centuries. The controversy over Romans 10:4 arose because these steps were not always carefully followed. I believe that to interpret telos as "termination'' in Romans 10:4, one must read the book of Romans through the lenses of a theology that is imposed upon the text, not derived from it.

Second, this study illustrates some of the challenges and pitfalls that we encounter in reading Paul's epistles. The book of Romans is not primarily a treatise of systematic theology about law and grace. Instead, it is a pastoral letter written to address the problems of the first-century congregation of the Church of God in Rome. To understand the letter, we must read it carefully as a whole to learn as much as possible about that congregation and its situation. 

Third, Romans 10:4 is a key verse about the relationship between the Old and New Testaments, and it is important to understand this verse properly. Although the heresy of Marcion was rejected by Christianity long ago, Marcion's ghost has haunted the church ever since. The interpretation of telos as "termination'' in Romans 10:4 is a reflection of antinomian and antijudaic tendencies that are still all too prevalent in Christianity.

Finally, Romans 10:4 gives us valuable insight into Paul's theology. After his Damascus Road experience, Paul did not cease to be a Pharisee (Acts 23:6) or to value Torah (Rom. 3:31), but he did see Torah in a new light. After his encounter with Jesus, Paul came to recognize how all of the Bible spoke of and pointed to Christ, the true goal, purpose, and fulfillment of Torah. Romans 10:4 epitomizes Paul's Christ-centered understanding, which completed, rather than negated, his Jewish identity. 


1."The Weightier and Lighter Matters of the Law:  Moses, Jesus, and Paul,'' in Current Issues in Biblical and Patristic Interpretation.  Studies in Honor of M.C. Tenney Presented by his Former Students, G.F. Hawthorne. Ed. Eerdmans, Grand Rapids, MI, 1975, p. 190.