In the last issue of Theological Studies September 2008 Vol. 69, NO.3 there were three articles dealing with the sexual acts of persons with sexual attractions towards some other persons of the same sex (1). It seems to me that all of the authors without using any distinctions jump to the usage of the term "homosexual" to refer to such same sex sexual attraction persons.

Something doesn't seem right to me about this procedure. Would one label a person as a thief because they felt an urge to steal? Or, if they did steal, would they then be a thief? Wouldn't they, rather, then be a person who committed a theft. Doesn't the use of the label, "homosexual" have a negative effect of some sort, especially when used without distinction or qualification in highly otherwise technical theological argumentation? I can't put my finger on it but doesn't it do a disservice to a person? For example, if you ask who he is about a public person like Congressman Barney Frank does it do justice to answer, "He is a homosexual"? Isn't a person much more than their sexual attraction which by the way wouldn't be to every other person of the same sex, I presume, but only to certain other persons and not all the time?

J--