The Trinity Doctrine

This study is about the trinity doctrine, which turns out to be a case study for two other important topics: how the Holy Scriptures interpret themselves & how doctrines of men crept into Christianity after the Apostles died.

First, it should be noted when the trinity doctrine was introduced to Christianity. And I challenge anyone reading this to look through their encyclopedias to verify what I've already done extensive research on and what I am sharing with you now.

Even the Catholic Encyclopedia admits that the trinity doctrine was nonexistent in the original first century church. And they should know, they were the first "Christian" church (the Church of Rome) to make the doctrine official before they literally force fed it to the rest of Christendom. Then they did the same thing with other illegitimate doctrines.

However, before it became official with the Church of Rome, how far does it go back? It's roots are in paganism, as plurality of gods and triune godheads are traceable right back to the beginning of recorded history and even earlier as the book of Genesis reveals. The pre-christianized version of the doctrine goes way back to the time of Nimrod and the Tower of Babel. But, the first "Christianized" version only became prevalent after all twelve Apostles died! There was a movement afoot between the 2nd & 3rd centuries AD generated by the Gnostics who were basically gentiles incorporating pagan mysticism into a Christian-like framework. See Microsoft Encarta Encyclopedia 2000:

Gnosticism, esoteric religious movement that flourished during the 2nd and 3rd centuries AD and presented a major challenge to orthodox Christianity. Most Gnostic sects professed Christianity, but their beliefs sharply diverged from those of the majority of Christians in the early church (see Heresy)."Gnosticism," Microsoft® Encarta® Encyclopedia 2000. © 1993-1999 Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved.

Paul the Apostle warned the churches which he established even through tears that doctrines of men & of devils would creep into the churches.

Acts 20:29-31
For I know this, that after my departing shall grievous wolves enter in among you, not sparing the flock. Also of your own selves shall men arise, speaking perverse things, to draw away disciples after them. Therefore watch, and remember, that by the space of three years I ceased not to warn every one night and day with tears.

He also warned them saying that just as the serpent beguiled Eve, they too would eventually succumb to Satan's trickery. He said they would easily accept a different Christ and a different gospel (2 Cor 11:2-4). He called it the "Mystery of Iniquity," which was already at work while he yet lived (2 Thes 2:7), but foretold that the son of perdition would come (2 Thes 2:3 & 8) and thrive only after he that prevents him is taken out of the way, namely himself. I know he was speaking of himself as being the one that prevents this evil one from coming because Paul said, "Don't you remember that when I was with you I used to tell you these things? And now you know what prevents him... (2 Thes 2:5-6)" He prevented this antichrist from coming by his words of warning which was God's Word, a double edge sword (Eph 6:17)! Likewise, the other Apostles would also be preventative medicine against such false doctrines, needless to say. Moses made a strikingly similar comment as Paul did:

Deut 31:27
For I know thy rebellion, and thy stiff neck: behold, while I am yet alive with you this day, ye have been rebellious against Yahweh; how much more after my death?

This wicked one, Paul described as claiming himself to be God himself (2 Thes 2:4)! Of course the word for "God" in this verse is the Greek, "theos" which could also mean "a god or magistrate," but in this particular context it means the God because he states that he is sitting in the Temple of God, claiming to be God. Also, in this very context, Paul was speaking concerning the coming of Messiah and our gathering unto him (2 Thes 2:1), and began by warning them not to be shaken by reports that Messiah is at hand (had already come)..."Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed...(2 Thes 2:3)." So, what we have here in these verses is a false Messiah claiming to be God, which is basically what I'm proving that the trinity doctrine is all about. Read on...

Now the Gnostics accelerated their strange theories about Messiah in the 2nd century just after the the last Apostle died, John. Paul had already been long dead by then. They were spreading doctrines like: Messiah didn't really suffer, he wasn't really in the flesh, but an illusion or apparition, and finally that he was God.

By the 4th century, 325 AD, the Roman Emperor at that time, Constantine was thoroughly indoctrinated by these wackos and summoned a council of Bishops to meet at Rome in what is known as the Council of Nicea or the Nicene Council where he intimidated the majority of the Bishops to sign a creed stating the official Roman Church's position that "Jesus" is God the Creator, from everlasting to everlasting, the Eternal.

Now, if that was already an original doctrine of Christianity from earliest times, why the sudden need in 325 AD to put it in writing and have several Bishops from all over to sign it? A few of them even refused to sign it and were immediately excommunicated from the church! And for the next several centuries those that did not agree with this creed, or any other that they dictated, were called "heretics." They were persecuted, tortured and murdered in many cruel ways if they didn't recant. By the way, Constantine himself murdered his son and current wife for allegedly having an affair. John the Apostle said that no murderer can inherit eternal life. This was long after he claimed conversion to Christianity. Although, the "Christianity" that he greatly helped to transform bore little resemblance to the Christianity the Apostles taught, before they were "taken out of the way."

Do the Scriptures support this doctrine? Well, there are about three or four verses which Trinitarians point out which is suppose to "prove" the theory that "Jesus" is God. By the way, that rendition of Yeshua's name, "Jesus" probably came from "Je-zeus" the paganized version of his name to keep their god Zeus in remembrance as it means God-Zeus (instead of Yah saves the real meaning of Yeshua). Anyway, there are the same tired old three or four verses (which on the surface appear to be contradicting the majority of verses to the contrary) apparently suggesting that Yeshua is God the Creator. However, in order to be taken even remotely serious (when they contradict the majority of airtight verses to the contrary), they better be airtight themselves. But, they aren't. They are only airtight when the intended meaning is read & understood accurately. But when used to prove that Yeshua is God the Creator, their translation or interpretation of them have so many holes that they sink like stones! And I'll point out those holes in a moment.

So, which are the majority airtight verses that contradict their so-called "proof texts?" There are too many to list. By the way, there are about 72 verses throughout Scripture that say in no uncertain terms that Messiah is the Son of God. There are no verses that say in point blank terms that Messiah is God. That is a fact. I am proving that right here on this page. If you love Yahweh enough, you will be honest enough to stick around and weigh the evidence, and your mind will be changed by the truth (if you believed contrary to the truth). There are seven other facts accompanied with their verses, which any one of them alone proves that Yeshua is not Yahweh, but listed together, they really blow the whole trinity theory out of the water. There are more but we'll do the following seven.

Fact One: For starters how about: "...Nevertheless, not my will, but thine, be done (Matt 26:39, Mark 14:36 & Luke 22:42)?" How can ONE God have two wills? He can't unless he has a multiple personality disorder, but, the Scriptures say that God is perfect. Besides, why would Messiah need to pray at all if he is God. He would pray to himself???

Of course, Trinitarians make excuses for this doctrinal inconsistency. And they all recite the same speech that they themselves have heard before, only the speech doesn't come from the Bible, it comes from men. "You see," they say, "he was all man, and yet he was all God." They continue, "The Spirit is his God nature, and the flesh is his human nature, and they were at variance with each other." The Spirit is already supposed to be one third of the trinity. God the Father is one third, where is Yeshua the man third? His flesh is not the last part of the trinity? In order for the trinity to be true, Messiah's flesh had to be God as well. But, there above explanation admits that his flesh couldn't be God. So, already they admit that it isn't a trinity. At best it is only two sided, like a coin, Father and Spirit. But, I can prove that the Father IS Spirit (John 4:24). So, that puts Yahweh our Father back at being ONE! So, they practically admit that Messiah isn't God, but they think it actually helps their argument. And by the same token as their above argument, they would have to be God too, since they think the holy spirit in them is God. So, they must be all God and all man as well. No? And their "water, steam and ice' analogy that comes from men, not the Bible, contradicts their above argument as well if you think it through. There is just no logic on their side at all.

Messiah said, "not my will, but thine, be done." And he prayed those same words at least three times, and three Gospels are witnesses to it, so there's no mistaking that he said it and that he meant it. Prior to that occasion, Yeshua taught that he did not do his own will, but his Father's will that sent him: "For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me (John 6:38, see also John 5:30)." He did not want to do what His Father wanted him to do, but he did it anyway. What do you call that? Obedience. And that brings us to Fact Two:

If Messiah was the Creator God (to whom Trinitarians actually pray), how could he need to pray to someone else, "not my will, but thine, be done;" and how could he need to be "obedient" to someone else if Messiah was the highest authority?

The above shows that Yeshua has in own will, yet, he was obedient to his Father's will. That's two facts that contradict the trinity doctrine. Here's Fact Three:

Those were Messiah's own words. So, Messiah Yeshua of Nazareth, the Son of the living God does not know everything that Yahweh, his Father knows. Can we all agree that the Creator God knows everything? If He knows everything, why would Yeshua say that the Son doesn't know what the Father knows? Would God say, "...no one knows, not the angels.., nor God, but only God"? Is this how the "Word" - which in the Greek is "logos," where we get our word "logic" from and means virtually the same thing - would this same Word of God be this illogical? No, it wouldn't. Stop trying to twist your brain into a pretzel to make the trinity work. It's really very simple in fact. All you have to do is let go of your prejudices, your brainwashed indoctrinazations and realize finally the simple truth: Yeshua of Nazareth is the Messiah the Son of the living God!

1 Cor 15:27
For "He has put all things under his feet." But when He says "all things are put under him," it is evident that He who put all things under him is excepted.

Trinitarians must surely have to avert their eyes at that one and try to forget it. I bet they cringe at a lot of Scripture that contradicts their long held and most cherished false doctrines, but, they'd never admit it.

Why would Paul feel the need to add that sentence, or to explain that point? It's obvious. His point wasn't to prove that Yeshua isn't God, because there was no doctrine taught at that time that Yeshua was God. He just didn't want them to think that God included Himself as being put under Messiah's feet, that's all. He had to make that point clear, because God knows that people are a little slow sometimes. I'm glad he felt the need to explain that because that is one more verse that proves that Messiah is not Yahweh, the God of Israel.

The last three are quick and easy as is often the case with truth; "Verily I say unto you, Whosoever shall not receive the kingdom of God as a little child, he shall not enter therein (Mark 10:15)." Yeshua our Lord stated on several occasions that - Fact Five: He did not speak his own words, but the words of Him who sent him, the Father's words (John 12:49-50). And - Fact Six: That he didn't do his own works but the works of Him that sent him. The Father did the signs and wonders (John 5:17, 9:4, 14:10). And - Fact Seven: Two testified that he is the Messiah: Yeshua was one and the Father with signs and wonders was the other one (John 5:31-21, 10:25).

Let's put aside the 72 verses that all say that the Messiah is Yahweh's Son for now. And let us focus on the four or so verses or texts that Trinitarians use to "prove" that Yeshua (Jesus) is God (the Creator). The objective is three pronged (no pun intended). First, to demonstrate that these verses do not in fact prove that Yeshua is Yahweh. Second, to demonstrate how Scripture interprets itself. Third, to allow Scripture itself to show us what the real points that these texts are really trying to make. We'll start with the most frequently used text and end with the most obscure one.

The first is John 1:1&2 used in conjunction with John 1:14. Here is how it appears in the New King James:

Then in verse 14 it says that the word became flesh. So, they conclude that Yeshua must be God even though it clearly states in that same verse that he is the only begotten of the Father, and four verses away in verse 18 it clearly states that no man has seen God at any time! So, if the Bible is not to contradict, there must be an error in the translation of verse one. With an objective honest look at it, it is very easy to find the mistake in the rendering of this verse into English. The mistake is easily found in the definition of "theos," and in King James' scribes' own initiative to capitalize what ever words they elect to capitalize. Let me explain:

In the original Hebrew & Greek, there were no capital letters. All letters appeared the same. The Greek word for "God" in those verses is "theos," meaning: God, a god, gods, object of worship, and magistrate. The word "theos" is the same word used every time "God" appears in your Bible; it is also the same word used every time "gods" or "a god" appears in your Bible. Also, the Greek put an extra word in front of just the first & third appearance of "theos" in this text, and NOT the second! That extra word is a Greek word with just two letters, "ho." It is the equivalent of the English word "THE." It was written like that originally because John the Apostle was distinguishing between the first & third "theos" (verses 1 & 2) and the second "theos" (in verse 1). Therefore, a completely legitimate translation of John 1:1 & 2 can be rendered more accurately this way:

The verse wouldn't make grammatical sense otherwise. How can someone be with someone else and also BE that someone else?

Two areas of Scripture help to shed a great deal of light on the above verses. The first is in the same book just ten chapters away in John 10:33b-36:

...Because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God [a god - theos].
Yeshua answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods [theos]? If he called them gods [theos], unto whom the Word of God [theos] came, and the Scripture cannot be broken; Say ye of him, whom the Father has sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest: because I said, I am the Son of God [theos]?

See? Right there Messiah said that if they are gods [theos], then the Son of God [Son of THE Theos] is a god [theos] also. I'll say it again: Yeshua just said in the above verses that the Son of God is a god in the same sense that the law said that "ye are gods," and in the exact same sense as "the Word was a god" in John 1:1! That confirms that the above translation is Scripturally accurate. That leads right to the next verse that I would like to bring to your attention:

There it is again. If the Spirit in the above verse is God (Yahweh), that which is born of Him is spirit with a lower case "s." This time the King James has it right, with the capital "S" in the right place, and the lower case "s" in the right place. That follows the same exact rule as in John 1:1&2, as if he had said, "That which is born of God is a god." Or, that which is born of Theos is theos. Or, he that was with God, is himself a god. I don't need to belabor the point.

Besides all this, "the Word became flesh" (verse 14) doesn't mean that some spirit-man materialized like some Star Trek episode! 1 John 1:1 & 2 interprets for us (so that we don't have to interpret it ourselves) that "becoming flesh" literally means "manifestation" of that "Word of life which was with the Father." And we know from eye witnesses that Yeshua said himself that he did not speak his own words nor do his own works, but as he hears of the Father, that, he speaks, and what he sees his Father do, he does also. No one has seen God at any time, but the Son which is in the bosom of the Father, he has declared him. Messiah had all the fullness of God in him bodily. He was so obedient that when people looked at him, it was like seeing the Father; as Messiah was his perfect representative here on earth. He manifested the Word of life perfectly in his obedience. That is our model. If we can be that obedient, people will see Yahweh by looking at our deeds and hearing our words. Intense!

1 John 1:1-4
That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, concerning the Word of life -- the life was manifested, and we have seen, and bear witness, and declare to you that eternal life which was with the Father and was manifested to us -- that which we have seen and heard we declare to you, that you also may have fellowship with us; and truly our fellowship is with the Father and with His Son Yeshua Messiah.

So, the Trinitarian can try to use John 1:1 to "prove" that Yeshua is God, but one can plainly see if he is honest, that it doesn't hold up that way. However, the point of that verse is meant to go with the rest of the verses in the context, making the point that all things are of God and that he planned it all before creation!

While we are in the area of this verse already, Trinitarians point to verse 3 of John 1 to show that Messiah is THE Creator (that verse is similar to Colosians 1:16-17), that "by" him (Messiah) were all things created. This is a word study, the Greek word "by" needs to be looked at.

In John 1:3, the word which our English versions have as "by" really means "through" according to the Strong's Hebrew & Greek Concordance:

The Greek Pronunciation Guide: dia {dee-ah'}
Definition: a primary preposition denoting the channel of an act; through, the ground or reason by which something is or is not done.

The "Word" in John 1 is the Greek word "logos" which literally means "reason" and "logic". "Logos" is where we get our word "logic" from. So, in the context of the first few verses of John 1, the whole point is that Yahweh, God the Creator had with Him before all things were created a plan. He had with Him before all things, reason and logic and wisdom (see Proverbs 8:22-31). Everything was created through that channel of reason, according to that master plan, the Word. Messiah manifested that wisdom which is also called the Word.

This holds true to other texts stating that things were done or created "through" or "by" Messiah. Did Messiah exist in physical or spiritual form before he was born to Mary? No more so than we were, as the Scriptures say in several places: Messiah was predestinated before the world was formed, as were we.

Acts 2:23:
Him [Messiah], being delivered by the determined purpose and foreknowledge of God, you have taken by lawless hands, have crucified, and put to death.

So then, why would God say that He created everything "through" His Son who was in his foreknowledge? The simple answer is this: God would not have created a single thing without having the plan of salvation firmly in place, for what sense would it be to create a universe for fellowship with mankind if the whole thing would fall from grace and be damned for eternity? Therefore, everything was created through the master plan of salvation through faith in the Son of God.

The first thing one should know when looking at references like these that Trinitarians love to quote (as they leave out facts that would detract from their position) is the never mentioned little fact that the first English translation of the Bible was around the year 1600. It was ordered by King James and it was carried out by Trinitarian scribes long after the Roman Catholic Church ordered all "heretics" put to death if they did not recant their "heresy." They called "heresy" anything that went against Catholic doctrine. The trinity was one such doctrine. I do not want to get into the gory details of that. Why is this important to the following verse in question? Because of the scribes inconsistency...

"For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace."

Why would they leave "Mahershalalhashbaz" in Hebrew, when they did not treat 9:6 the same way? "Mahershalalhashbaz" when translated is: "In making speed to the spoil he hastened the prey." That is a name, a long name. It is so long that it is actually a full sentence! The question then becomes: just because his name is called "In making speed to the spoil he hastened the prey," does that make the child automatically one that quickly chases spoil and hastens prey? No. When reading in context, we see that Yahweh was making a symbolic prophecy about the politics of Damascus and Samaria using the child's name.

Similarly, the name "John" means "God is gracious." Does that mean that everyone that is named "John" is God in the flesh walking around being gracious? Of course not. Many, many people's names in the Bible have meanings like "Yah is just," or "Yahweh saves" and so forth. A huge amount of Hebrew names are basically named after God. Doesn't make all those that are named like that God. Someone named "Rose" doesn't mean she is literally a flower. The only reason why people don't know how common it was to be named something like "God is the mighty and everlasting Father" is because the scribes left their names in Hebrew, that is unless it suits their agenda by translating it. The above name may have been slightly edited also. Some translations have the name as: "Wonderful in Counsel is the mighty God, the everlasting Father, the Prince of Peace." That would seem more likely anyway when compared to: "In making speed to the spoil he hastened the prey," because both would be in a logical sentence form, not all cryptically chopped up.

Also worth noting in Isaiah 9:6 is the phrase, "his name shall be called." "Call his name," in Isaiah 8:3, is virtually the same thing. What it does not say is, "For unto us a child is born... and he IS... The mighty God..." It says, "his name shall be called," which is the same as saying, "his name means..."

John 20:27-29:
Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing. And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God. Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.

This section is called The Holes in the Trinitarian "Proof Text." In light of the seven facts that prove that Yeshua can not be Yahweh, this Trinitarian "Proof Text" must have some kind of hole if the Holy Scriptures are to be a consistent and true. As promised, here is that hole:

Matthew 16:23:
But he turned, and said unto Peter, Get thee behind me, Satan: thou art an offence unto me: for thou savourest not the things that be of God, but those that be of men.

So, if John 20:28 proves that Yeshua is Yahweh, then Matt 16:23 proves that Peter is Satan.

I don't need to add anything more to this, but I just want to show that there are actually two holes in this so called "proof text." A) "Answered and said unto him" and "said unto him," in Biblical usage obviously means: in response, and not necessarily directed personally at him, otherwise Peter is Satan. Understanding the importance of Biblical usage is imperative to understanding the Holy Scriptures as a whole. Can we agree that when trying to understand the Scriptures, it is not important how our present day society uses words and phrases, but how the Scriptures use them? B) The Greek "theos" for "God" in John 20:28 can also be translated "godly," because that phrase, "my Lord and my God" is an Eastern expression called "hendiadys" which uses two nouns to make one descriptive point, with one or both nouns used as an adjective. In this phrase, he may actually be saying, "my godly Lord." Having said that, it is my personal opinion that Thomas was just acknowledging that Yeshua is his "Lord" and that Yahweh is his "God." He was addressing BOTH the Father and the Son. The way it was recorded for us in the Gospel of John uses the same style of writing as in Matthew 16:23. So, if Trinitarians try to use that to prove that Yeshua is Yahweh, then they MUST also have to believe that Peter is Satan! Obviously both conclusions are ridiculous.

"When You have Seen Me, You have Seen the Father"
AND
"I and the Father are One"

John 14:9
Yeshua said to him, "Have I been with you so long, and yet you have not known me, Philip? He who has seen me has seen the Father; so how can you say, 'Show us the Father'?

When Trinitarians quote these verses, they conveniently leave out the rest of the context of 14:9, and then they neglect to read Messiah's own interpretation of "one" from 10:30. So, let's first read the whole context of 14:9:

John 14:9-11
Yeshua said to him, "I am the way, the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me. "If you had known me, you would have known my Father also; and from now on you know Him and have seen Him." Philip said to Him, "Lord, show us the Father, and it is sufficient for us." Yeshua said to him, "Have I been with you so long, and yet you have not known me, Philip? He who has seen me has seen the Father; so how can you say, 'Show us the Father'? Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on my own authority; but the Father who dwells in me does the works. Believe me that I am in the Father and the Father in me, or else believe me for the sake of the works themselves."

Do I need to say anything, or can you figure it out for yourself? It's pretty obvious. The Scriptures say plainly in the same book:

John 1:18
No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he has declared Him.
John 9b-11
"...so how can you say, 'Show us the Father'? Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on my own authority; but the Father who dwells in me does the works. Believe me that I am in the Father and the Father in me, or else believe me for the sake of the works themselves."

So, what does it mean where he says, "He who has seen me has seen the Father?" Just like the Scriptures interpret themselves, Yeshua interprets himself: "I do not speak on my own authority; but the Father who dwells in me does the works." That's what he meant. He continued: "Believe me that I am in the Father and the Father in me, or else believe me for the sake of the works themselves." Also, in John 1:18 it interprets for us: "No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he has declared Him." He manifested what Yahweh, the God Israel is by being obedient:

Philipians 2:8
And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

1 John 1:2
The life was manifested, and we have seen, and bear witness, and declare to you that eternal life which was with the Father and was manifested to us.

He was so obedient, that everything he said and did was his Father's words and works. Do you get it now? If we become that obedient, we can also say, "He that has seen me has seen the Father." Yes, if we are that obedient, we can say the same thing, and we should be that obedient. Wouldn't that be great? Don't you wish you can say that? You can, if you renew your mind in the spirit and after the mind of Messiah:

Colosians 3:10
And have put on the new man who is renewed in knowledge according to the image of Him [Yahweh] who created him.

1 Corinthians 2:16
For "who has known the mind of Yahweh that he may instruct him?" But we have the mind of Messiah.

If we are that obedient, and that renewed in our minds according to the image of Yahweh that created our gift of holy spirit, we can also say these words as well: "I and the Father are one." How dare I? Well, what did Yeshua mean by being "one" with the Father? Let's look for Yeshua using the same word for "one," in this case it is the Greek "heis", and let's look for him using it in the same sense and even in the same book. Again, each time you see "one" in the following verses, it is the same Greek word "heis" as used in John 10:30:

John 17:11
Now I am no longer in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to You. Holy Father, keep through Your name those whom You have given me, that they may be one as we are.

John 17:20-23
I do not pray for these alone, but also for those who will believe in me through their word [includes us today]; that they all may be one, as You, Father, are in me, and I in You; that they also may be one in us, that the world may believe that You sent me. And the glory which You gave me I have given them, that they may be one just as we are one: I in them, and You in me; that they may be made perfect in one, and that the world may know that You have sent me, and have loved them as You have loved me.

The underlined parts in the above verses are places where Messiah interprets his meaning of being one with the Father. To be one means that the Father is in him, and he in the Father. He continues saying that we may be one in them by having Messiah in us. The Father in Messiah, Messiah in us, we in them, together as one just as Messiah and the Father are one within each other. So, if that means that Messiah is Yahweh, God of Israel, then by the same token, we must be Yahweh, God of Israel! However, we are not God, neither is Yeshua God, but if we remain in Messiah, and Messiah in us, we may be one with them in unity. It's very, very simple, and Messiah explains himself fully, so we are without excuse!

This why it is important that we have Yeshua Messiah as our Lord, because he is NOT God, but our BRIDGE to God. If he were God Himself, we would have no bridge:

Looking at verses like the above verse: 1 Timothy 2:5, do you finally see the danger in misunderstanding who Messiah is? If one thinks that Yeshua is God Himself (when he's not) then they are missing the Son from their lives, they're missing the real Messiah! If they think he's God, where is their mediator? Where is their bridge to the Father? They effectively removed the Son of God from their lives. Oh, they still go around saying, "Jesus, Jesus, Jesus," but to them, "Jesus" is God. Where, I ask, is the real man, Messiah Yeshua, the Son of the living God in their lives? Where? They have substituted him for a triune godhead, and they have misplaced the very one who would be their mediator to God. Think about that. Think about the above verse: 1 Timothy 2:5 and it's implications, and the ramifications should one dismiss the need for a mediator. If Yeshua is God then he can't be the mediator to get to God, and that would contradict 1 Timothy 2:5! Therefore, he is not God Himself, but is the WAY to God:

I hope that I'm not just preaching to the choir. I hope some of you Trinitarians are really starting to rethink this issue and may actually be coming to terms with reality. So offended are most Trinitarians because they think that I'm trying to take something away from Messiah. No one can take anything away from the Son of God! If you think I am trying to make Messiah into something less than he really is, think again. All glory, power honor and authority has been given to him by the Father. He shall rule on earth as King of kings and Lord of Lords. That means that he shall rule the world and that all the kings of all the nations shall serve under him. He is our Teacher, our Lord (Master), our oldest brother, our friend, our mediator to the Father, and soon to be the King of the whole world when he returns! There is no one above him but the Father alone. The Father sent him, and he has sent us. He is inside us by principle, for he made available to us the gift of holy spirit that he also has. He made it available by his sacrificing himself in our place to be tortured to death, beaten and nailed to a tree. That's how much he loved us, and the love of God was in him spiritually. Now, thanks to him, we now have that same spiritual component that he still has today, the holy spirit; and that same love of God lives in us today, as it still lives in him! We shall see him with our own eyes someday soon, and every knee will bow to him, for he is the one and only, born from the womb, Son of the Living God, and he does represent Yahweh Himself! We, right now, here on this planet today represent Yeshua Messiah, and in turn represent Yahweh as well. May we all do our part!

May Yahweh our Holy Father give abundant grace to you all in the wonderful name of our Lord and savior, Yeshua Messiah of Nazareth, our mediator between God and ourselves. Amen.

If you have something you would like to share with our "Debate the Trinity" group, join up! You can be as tough as you like, just be respectful without calling people names. That's the only rule.

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