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FAQ # 132

QUESTION  132 :  When a man and woman marry, they become "one flesh." They are still two people. Isn’t that the same with the Trinity?

Again- Look at the context of the passage- Eph. 5:31 "For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be one flesh. 32 This is a great mystery: but I SPEAK CONCERNING CHRIST AND THE CHURCH. 33 Nevertheless let every one of you in particular so love his wife even AS himself; and the wife see that she reverence her husband."

So then, the example you have given was NOT AT ALL written "concerning" the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost whom the Bible has already SPECIFICALLY stated to be "one and the selfsame Spirit." This passage was written SPECIFICALLY "concerning Christ and the Church" that the two are become one flesh. In other words, you have taken this verse out of context, and attempted to make it say something it does not say, to prove a point contrary to something THE BIBLE HAS SPECIFICALLY REFUTED ELSEWHERE.

This is not good. In the Bible it is called- Mark 7:13 "Making the word of God of none effect through your tradition, which ye have delivered..."

Mark 7:7 "Howbeit IN VAIN (for nothing, no profit or purpose) do they worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men. 8 For LAYING ASIDE THE COMMANDMENT of God, ye hold the tradition of men... and many other such like things ye do. 9...FULL WELL YE REJECT THE COMMANDMENT OF GOD, THAT YE MAY KEEP YOUR OWN TRADITION."

[It already stated that this was an analogy for a particular example, then in your question it is asked if it is for another example]

Do you see this? Do you see the error in this type of Biblical interpretation from a scriptural standpoint?

{Source: Tom R.}

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