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FAQ # 135
QUESTION 135 : You
speak of "manifestations", "operations", or "administrations"
of the Father, Son and the Holy Spirit, but the Bible never uses these
terms to describe them. Can you show me where this occurred?
Although the Bible NEVER calls the Father,
Son, and Holy Spirit "Separate Persons," does the Bible NOT
use the words "operation," "manifest (ations)," or
"administrations" in reference to the offices or works of the
Lord? Look at these verses:
Ps. 28:5 "Because
they regard not THE WORKS of the LORD, nor THE OPERATION of his
hands, he shall destroy them, and not build them up."
Isa 5:11 "Woe unto
them that... 12 ...regard not THE WORK OF THE LORD, neither consider THE
OPERATION of his hands. 13 Therefore my people are gone into captivity,
BECAUSE THEY HAVE NO KNOWLEDGE..."
John 1:31 "And
I knew him not: but that he should be made MANIFEST to Israel,
therefore am I come baptizing with water."
John 14:21 "He
that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me:
and he that loveth me shall be loved of my Father, and I WILL love him,
and will MANIFEST MYSELF to him. 22 Judas saith unto him, not Iscariot,
Lord, how is it that thou wilt MANIFEST thyself unto us, and not
unto the world?
Rom 10:20 "But
Esaias is very bold, and saith, I was found of them that sought me not;
I WAS MADE MANIFEST unto them that asked not after me."
Rom 16:25 "...JESUS
CHRIST, according to the revelation of the mystery... 26 "But now
IS MADE MANIFEST..., made known..."
1 Cor 12:5 And there
are differences of ADMINISTRATIONS, but the same Lord. 6 And there
are diversities of OPERATIONS, but it is the same God which worketh all
in all... 12... SO ALSO IS CHRIST."
1 Tim 3:16 "And
WITHOUT CONTROVERSY great is the mystery of godliness: GOD WAS MANIFEST
in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the
Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory."
1 Pet 1:19 "...Christ,
as of a lamb without blemish and without spot: 20 Who VERILY... WAS MANIFEST
in these last times for you."
1 Jon 3:1 "Behold...
the Father... 5 And ye know that HE WAS MANIFESTED to take away
our sins; and in him is no sin.
1 Jon 3:8 "He that
committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning.
For this purpose THE SON OF GOD WAS MANIFESTED, that he might destroy
the works of the devil."
1 Jon 5:7 "For
there are three that BEAR RECORD in heaven, the Father, the Word, and
the Holy Ghost: and these three ARE ONE."
There are, it is true, other words that
are not found in scripture that we use. However, each and every one of
them has a SPECIFICALLY STATED scriptural doctrine, concept, idea, etc;
unlike the ‘Trinity’. For example, the following (English) words are not
found in scripture either, but their concepts are most clearly and explicitly
stated in scripture-
BIBLE- "...What thou seest, write
in a book (biblios)..." -Revelation 1:11. "Bible... from Greek
biblion, pl. of biblios... a book" -Webster's Dictionary.
RAPTURE- "The state of being carried
away with joy, love, etc...." -Webster's. "In a moment, in the
twinkling of an eye... we shall be changed..." -1 Corinthians 15:52.
"Then WE... SHALL BE CAUGHT UP... in the clouds, to meet the Lord
in the air..." -1 Thessalonians 4:17.
Since the Trinity doctrine of three Separate
Persons is a) NOT expressly stated in scripture; b) Has
NO descriptive terminology found in scripture; and c) CANNOT be
expressed by merely cross-referencing scripture; HOW MUCH LESS BIBLICAL
WOULD A DOCTRINE HAVE TO BE BEFORE YOU WOULD CONSIDER IT UNSCRIPTURAL?
What else does "unscriptural" mean?
{Source: Tom R.}
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