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FAQ # 187
QUESTION 187 : I read in many of the Epistles where it showed a distinction
between father and son; for instance, “Grace be unto you and peace, from
God our father and the Lord Jesus Christ” (KJV). This shows two
separate persons. Others include, 1 Corinthians
1:3 ; 2 Corinthians 1:2 ; Galatians 1:3-5 ; Ephesians 1:2 ; Philippians
1:2 ; Colossians 1:2 ; 1 Thessalonians 1:1 ; 2 Thessalonians 1:2 ; 1 Timothy
1:2 ; 2 Timothy 1:2 ; Titus 1:4 ; Philemon 1:3. Please
help?
In cases where ‘Jesus and God’ or ‘Father
and Jesus’ are used in the same sentence can be easily misinterpreted
as two different persons; this scripture come into play:
“Therefore, the Lord heard this and was
wroth: so a fire was kindled against Jacob, and anger also came up against
Israel” (Psalms 78:21).
Notice the way or style of speech here,
probably for emphasis. Jacob and Israel are not only referring to the
same person, but is the same person. Jacob’s name is Israel and vice versa.
Similar to saying Simeon Peter or Cephas; same person. With the verse
in question, my deduction is that it’s used for
emphasis. This is seen in many biblical texts. However part 2 will shed
more clarity.
Part 2
Guess what? If you read the
Greek from which it was translated from, the word “and” was neither in
this scripture nor any of its similar opening salutations by Paul or any
of the other Apostles in their Epistles.
According to the Hendrickson’s
Greek interlinear New Testament, the text should read, “Grace be unto
you and peace, from God our father the Lord Jesus Christ.”
Makes a lot more sense now,
right? The words ‘and’, ‘even’, ‘from’ and ‘of our’ are inserted in many
of the Epistles in references where Father (or God) and Jesus is in the
same sentence. These were put in by the Catholic translators to keep in
line with the current Trinitarian teaching on the Godhead. If you should
take a copy of the Hendrickson’s Greek interlinear Bible, it will reveal
that the translators inserted many of their thoughts to accommodate a
language whose idioms and grammaticism were unclear. If you’re more interested,
you may purchase a book called “The God of two testaments,” by Robert
Graves, you’ll discover this and other biblical flaws about the Godhead
from the ancient scripts. Here
is a link for the book http://www.threeq.com/pages/morebooks.html.
{Source: Part 2 aided by Paul Dean}
Here is the wheel of prophecy tract that
explains some:
Part 3
Another interesting proof of Jesus' identity as the
father is furnished by the New Testament salutations found in the epistles.
We read for example:
“Grace to you and peace from God our Father, and the
Lord Jesus Christ” Romans 1:7.
As it reads it presents no obstacle to Oneness doctrine.
For we believe in God the Father, and also in the Lord Jesus Christ, his
Son. And this in no way detracts from the contingent New Testament Truth
that God the Father dwells in the Lord Jesus Christ, His Son. Paul is
careful to remind his readers of that truth also (Col. 2:9; 1 Tim. 3:16;
2 Cor. 5:19). Biblically speaking, a belief in the Father and the Son
is also a belief in the Father in the Son (John 10:38).
But something else may be indicated in these salutations,
for the Greek word "kai" (and) can also be translated as "even"
or "who is." And in fact is so translated in other texts. For
example, "Kai" is rendered "even" in 2 Cor. 1:3, “Blessed
be God, even the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of
mercies, and the God of all comfort.” Also James 3:9, “Therewith bless
we God, even the Father; and therewith curse we men, which are
made after the similitude of God. And 1 Thess. 3:13, “God, even
our Father.”
It should also
have been translated "even" in Gal. 1:4 which mentions “the
will of God and our Father:” and also Col. 3:17 which speaks of giving
thanks to, "God and the Father by him." For the meaning is clearly
intended to be "God, even the Father" rather than "God
and the father." Even Trinitarians admit "god" and "Father"
are one and the same individual!
This being true, then it is also possible to render
"Kai" as "even" instead of "and" in Romans
1:7 which would then read:
“Grace to you and peace from God our Father, even the
Lord Jesus Christ.”
2 Thess 1:2 would be,
“Grace unto you, and, peace from God our Father, even
the Lord Jesus Christ.”
And so forth throughout the epistles. This would be
a great addition to the already substantial arsenal of texts proving the
Fatherhood of Christ. And there is not one grammatical or linguistical
impediment to translating it this way.
{Source: Ross Drysdale}
Answer Notes: 1. Even other non-biblical writers wrote like the opening salutations. So we can speculate that this style of interpolation was popular and the meaning clearly mean; for the following writer has several godly appellations in his opening salutation, but none would say he didn't speak of the same person, in all or some instances, even though the "and" separate them. The Epistle of Polycarp to the Church at Philippi, “Now may the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, and the eternal High Priest Himself, the God Jesus Christ, build you up in the faith...” Polycarp –69-155 AD (http://ezek27.truepath.com).
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