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FAQ # 40

QUESTION  40 :  I heard preachers say that being “born of the water” is referring to the actual baby in the mother’s womb surrounded by liquid and coming out of that liquid; rather than it being water baptism, pointing to the connecting phrase, “that which is born of the flesh is flesh.” Some even using the term "your water broke." Is this true?

Before answering, let us have the text before us:

Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God. Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born? Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and [of] the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit” (John 3:3-6).

Notice the first line, “Except a man be born again.” Born again refers to this New Birth salvation, which is later broken down into “born of the water” and “born of the spirit.” So then, being born of the water is apart of being born again. So then if you were “born of the water” at birth why did Jesus command us to be born again? How could this be speaking of the first birth in your mother’s womb? Remember, it says “except a man!” “MAN” here tell us that the person is already out of the mother’s womb, fully grown into a living breathing human being and needs to be born again. But he cannot enter into his mother’s womb again, so the mechanism used to re-enact this and regenerate us is faith in water baptism and the baptism of the Holy Ghost.

Surprisingly enough I was on the phone sometime early this year (2003), and a friend of mine told me that he heard a prolific preacher saying these things on television. I had no idea that preacher would say something like that, especially as an adherent to the truth. I later found out and even got emails about it. The same argument is used repeatedly, being "born of the water" (John 3:5) is being born the first time in the mother's womb, giving emphasis to the phrase "That which is born of the flesh is flesh" (John 3:6).

However, this is clearly wrong because the opening verse to this said, "Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God" (John 3:3). Remember, Jesus broke it down to Nicodemus that being born again is being “born of the water” and “of the spirit” (John 3:5). In other words, the two composites make up being born again.

Sorry to sound repetitive, but how then could apart of it mean the first literal birth? How then could being born again be the first birth of the natural womb? Why would it be called "born again" or why would we need to be born again? Or, why would Nicodemus say in utter confusion, "can a man enter the second time in the womb;" giving reference to being born of the water and spirit - born again?

You cannot separate being "born of the water" from being born again. And, being born again is a secondary experience to your natural birth. Those who are led to be born of the water and to be born of the spirit are actually born of God; not 'a' or 'apart of' the physical birth, but the new birth by Jesus Christ. John 1:13 tells us this,

"Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God."

He is the one who leads you to water baptism and supernaturally take away all your sins; and he is also the one who supernaturally baptize you with his spirit, evidence by unknown tongues. Again, I find this teaching absurd, because water baptism or “born of the water” is for remission of sins (Acts 2:38), yet one verse said that we were “shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my [our] mother conceive me [us]” (Psalms 51:5). If “born of the water” was the first birth why were we born in sin, since “born of the water” washes away sin? You see how stupid this is, clear erroneous speculative theology

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