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Print Page | Add To Favorites | Close Window | Send To A Friend | Save This Page FAQ # 70 QUESTION 70 : In Romans 6:1
wasn’t Paul implying that God’s grace towards us can be dried up, if we
keep on sinning? Remember, he said, “what shall we say then? Shall we
continue in sin that grace may abound?” Even if it were possible,
in the verse directly after the one you quoted, Paul said, “How shall
we, that are dead to sin, live any longer therein?” (Rom 6:2). In other
words, this is impossible. Can you kill a chicken and expect it to lay
eggs. Similarly, we are dead to sin by the spirit of God and therefore
cannot produce sin. Paul confirms what the Apostle John spoke of in his
epistle (1 John), that born again Christians cannot continue (“eth”) in
sin because they are born of God. Not that sometimes our tongues don’t
slip and a lie doesn’t ‘accidentally’ come out. But continue means that
you’ll never see a genuine born again believer clubbing every weekend,
having unwed sex every other night and enjoying a lifestyle of sin; even
further, with no remorse. Paul went further to
explain about grace, the law and sin. He said, “know ye not, that to whom
ye yield yourselves servants to obey, his servants ye are to whom ye obey,
whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness” (Rom 6:16).
Whether you reject the gospel and live in sin or obey its doctrine and
become born again with living righteously. We have to always remember
the tenets of salvation. In this case, it is to keep us from sinning.
God cannot lie. He cited the problem and said, “my people are bent
to backsliding” (Hos 11:7). He also herald the coming solution
and said, “I will put my spirit within you and cause you to walk in my
statues…” (Eze 36:27). In other words, after being born again, it’s not
an option, his spirit will make you live godly and upright; guaranteed! God’s solution has to
work or he is an alleged liar and found with fault; that is, he cannot
produce what he promised, especially knowing that he is ‘THE GOD’. Part 2 To
tell the truth, many have missed the real meaning Paul was trying to convey
in Romans 6:1. Lets read this verse in another version (Jewish) to see
if the intended meaning can be grasped. “What
shall we say, then? Shall we go on sinning so that grace may increase?
By no means!” (Rom 6:1-2) {N C P E - I don’t usually ascribe to
the NCPE, a derivation of the NIV, but this is correct!} In
other words, because grace “abounds” (increase) as a result of sin, should
we sin in order to get more grace; as absurd as it sounds. Let us actually
read two verses before Rom 6:1-2 to see why he said that; those verses,
Rom 5:20-21. Bought versions are presented below: “But
where sin abound, grace did much more abound. That as sin hath reigned
unto death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal
life by Jesus Christ our Lord” (KJV). “But
where sin increased, grace increased all the more…” (N C P E). Therefore, after Paul made this astounding fact two verses
before, he had to clear it up before they were a bunch of sincere sinning
Christians in Rome. In other words, because he said that “where sin increase,
grace increase all the more,” people would start sinning to get more grace;
which would be foolish and missing the mark. So Paul had to make sure
he straighten out this paradox before these Christians used sinning as
a means or with the intention to get more grace, because of what he said.
He made sure he said, “shall we go on sinning so [in order] that grace
may increase? By no means!” Or, “God forbids!” What
Paul was trying to say started to culminate from Romans 3:5, “But if our
unrighteousness commend the righteousness of God, what shall we say? Is
God unrighteous who taketh vengeance?” In other words, if our sin (unrighteousness)
glorifies God’s Holiness (righteousness) in contrast, is he then wicked
to punish us for it, seeing that it glorifies him? Then he uses a first
person example to emphases it. “For if the truth of God hath more abounded
through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner (Rom
3:7)?” Then he uses a rhetorical question for further emphasis, “And not
rather . . . Let us do evil, that good may come (Rom 3:8)?” In other words,
if that were the case - we sin and good come- let us live wickedly that
good may come; with God being glorified. But of course this sounds absurd
to you that’s why he said in Romans 3:6, “God forbid: for then how shall
God judge the world?” This whole scenario continued down to Chapter 6 verse one from
your question, “What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that
grace may abound? God forbid. How shall we, that are dead to sin, live
any longer therein?” (Rom 6:1) Most people don’t even realize this contextual or true meaning, but rather try to use it as a beating stick to scare the congregation from sinning. |
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