Call To Perfection - The Law: Does Shaul Do Away With It?

A Study By Brother EliYAH

Shalom all :) The following is a collection of scriptures showing that Paul NEVER taught that we need not obey the Torah. I only ask that everyone read all of this study (please do not skim thru) before coming to a conclusion. I have restored the word that is translated "law" with what I believe to be its proper translation.."Torah" Paul himself believed in keeping the Torah

Acts 24:14 (NKJV) "But this I confess to you, that according to the Way which they call a sect, so I worship the Elohim of my fathers, believing all things which are written in the Torah and in the Prophets. Acts 25:8 (NKJV) while he answered for himself, "Neither against the Torah of the Jews, nor against the temple, nor against Caesar have I offended in anything at all." Acts 18:21 (NKJV) but took leave of them, saying, "I must by all means keep this coming feast in Jerusalem; but I will return again to you, Yahweh willing." And he sailed from Ephesus. Roma 7:25 (NKJV) I thank Yahweh--through Yahshua the Messiah our Master! So then, with the mind I myself serve the Torah of Yahweh, but with the flesh the Torah of sin.

Paul taught the disciples not to let anyone judge them for observing the Torah (See the study on this on the home page)

Colo 2:16 (NKJV) So let no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or a new moon or sabbaths, 17 which are a shadow of things to come, but the body of the Messiah.

Paul says that the doers of the Torah will be justified and those who break it will be judged.

Roma 2:12 (NKJV) For as many as have sinned without Torah will also perish without Torah, and as many as have sinned in the Torah will be judged by the Torah 13 (for not the hearers of the Torah [are] just in the sight of Yahweh, but the doers of the Torah will be justified.

The word that is translated "without Torah" here is word #460 which means "not amenable to the Jewish/Mosaic Torah". (See Thayers and Strong's lexicon) Paul says that we know His will and approve the things that are excellent when instructed out of the Torah.

Roma 2:17 (NKJV) Indeed you are called a Jew, and rest on the Torah, and make your boast in Yahweh, 18 and know [His] will, and approve the things that are excellent, being instructed out of the Torah, 19 and are confident that you yourself are a guide to the blind, a light to those who are in darkness, 20 an instructor of the foolish, a teacher of babes, having the form of knowledge and truth in the Torah.

Here he says that when we break the Torah, we dishonor Yahweh and blaspheme His name.

Roma 2:21 You, therefore, who teach another, do you not teach yourself? You who preach that a man should not steal, do you steal? 22 You who say, "Do not commit adultery," do you commit adultery? You who abhor idols, do you rob temples? 23 You who make your boast in the Torah, do you dishonor Yahweh through breaking the Torah? 24 For "the name of Yahweh is blasphemed among the Gentiles because of you," as it is written.

Here Paul twice states that we learn what sin is from the Torah. This backs up the statement in 1John 3:4 that Sin is transgression of the Torah.

Roma 3:20 (NKJV) Therefore by the deeds of the Torah no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the Torah [is] the knowledge of sin. Roma 7:7 (NKJV) What shall we say then? [Is] the Torah sin? Certainly not! On the contrary, I would not have known sin except through the Torah. For I would not have known covetousness unless the Torah had said, "You shall not covet."

Here is a key scripture proving that Paul believed that thru faith we do not make the Torah void, but rather we establish the Torah (To cause or make to stand, #2476).

Roma 3:31 (NKJV) Do we then make void the Torah through faith? Certainly not! On the contrary, we establish the Torah.

Here is another key scripture like the one above proving that Paul did not believe that once we are under grace, that we can continue to sin (break the Torah)

Roma 6:15 (NKJV) What then? Shall we sin because we are not under Torah but under grace? Certainly not! 16 Do you not know that to whom you present yourselves slaves to obey, you are that one's slaves whom you obey, whether of sin [leading] to death, or of obedience [leading] to righteousness?

Here Paul is equating "the Torah" with "the commandment" and stating his opinion of them

Roma 7:12 (NKJV) Therefore the Torah [is] holy, and the commandment holy and just and good.

Here is an unpopular statement of Paul's. Many christians like to believe that the Torah is of the flesh.

Roma 7:14 (NKJV) For we know that the Torah is spiritual, but I am carnal, sold under sin.

Paul delights in the Torah of Yahweh

Roma 7:22 (NKJV) For I delight in the Torah of Yahweh according to the inward man.

Now we will move on to where Paul uses the term "Torahlessness". The word that is translated "Torahlessness" in the following verses is the greek word "anomia" which carries the following definition: BDB/Thayers # 458 458 anomia {an-om-ee'-ah} from 459; TDNT - 4:1085,646; n f AV - iniquity 12, unrighteousness 1, transgress the law + 4060 1, transgression of the law 1; 15 1) the condition of without law 1a) because ignorant of it 1b) because of violating it 2) contempt and violation of law, iniquity, wickedness Now for a second witness here is the definition of this in the Strong's Hebrew Lexicon: 458. anomia, an-om-ee'-ah; from 459; illegality, i.e. violation of the law or (gen.) wickedness --- iniquity X transgress (ion of) the law, unrighteousness. Now note that both lexicons it states that both of these words come from the greek word #459. This word means "To be destitute or in violation of the Mosaic or Jewish Torah" (See Thayer's and Strong's Lexicons). Now the word #458 is translated "transgression of the Torah" in the King James version of 1john 3:4

1Joh 3:4 (av) Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the Torah: for sin is the transgression of the Torah.

Yes, this was written by John but it is surely showing that this word is certainly the definition of sin. For sin is anomia (condition of being without the Torah or violation of the Torah, transgression of the Torah) In these verses he shows that righteousness is the opposite of Torahlessness (#458 in violation of the Torah). Therefore if one is keeping the Torah, they must walking in righteousness. (Though this is confirmed already by many verses I have already shown.) Please also remember this for later in the study.

Roma 6:19 (NKJV) I speak in human [terms] because of the weakness of your flesh. For just as you presented your members [as] slaves of uncleanness, and of Torahlessness [leading] to [more] Torahlessness, so now present your members [as] slaves [of] righteousness for holiness. 2Cor 6:14 (NKJV) Do not be unequally yoked together with unbelievers. For what fellowship has righteousness with Torahlessness? And what communion has light with darkness?

Here again, Paul equates this word (#458) Torahless with SIN.

Roma 4:7 (NKJV) "Blessed [are] [those] whose Torahless deeds are forgiven, And whose sins are covered.

Now here is an example where this word is used when translating the Old Testament.

Hebr 1:9 (NKJV) You have loved righteousness and hated Torahlessness (#458); Therefore Elohim, Your Elohim, has anointed You With the oil of gladness more than Your companions."

Now this is interesting...here is an example of where the New Testament is quoting from the old testament. (From the Hebrew to the greek). Now what word does this greek word #458 translate from? Let's find out

Psal 45:6 (av) Thy throne, O El', [is] for ever and ever the sceptre of thy kingdom [is] a right sceptre.Psal 45:7 Thou lovest righteousness, and hatest wickedness:(From the greek #458) therefore El', thy El', hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.

So it comes from the Hebrew word reshah (#7562) which means "Wickedness" !! Now how is this word used in other places in scripture? Here we seen an example of a Psalm that makes wickedness the opposite of righteousness. (Just as Paul taught). Now this study might go on forever and ever proving that the meaning of what Paul meant by "righteousness" was obedience to the Torah but lets look at some examples.

Roma 6:16 (NKJV) Do you not know that to whom you present yourselves slaves to obey, you are that one's slaves whom you obey, whether of sin [leading] to death, or of obedience [leading] to righteousness?

Here obedience is equated with righteousness (as defined by the Torah)

Roma 10:5 (NKJV) For Moses writes about the righteousness which is of the Torah, "The man who does those things shall live by them."

Here are many other scriptures then where Paul says that we ought to walk in righteousness:

Ephe 5:8 (NKJV) For you were once darkness, but now [you] [are] light in Yahweh. Walk as children of light Ephe 5:9 (for the fruit of the Spirit [is] in all goodness, righteousness, and truth), Ephe 5:10 (NKJV) finding out what is acceptable to Yahweh. Ephe 5:11 And have no fellowship with the unfruitful works of darkness, but rather expose [them]. Ephe 6:14 (NKJV) Stand therefore, having girded your waist with truth, having put on the breastplate of righteousness, Phil 1:9 (NKJV) And this I pray, that your love may abound still more and more in knowledge and all discernment, Phil 1:10 that you may approve the things that are excellent, that you may be sincere and without offense till the day of the Messiah, Phil 1:11 being filled with the fruits of righteousness which [are] by Yahshua the Messiah, to the glory and praise of Yahweh. 2Tim 2:22 (NKJV) Flee also youthful lusts; but pursue righteousness, faith, love, peace with those who call on Yahweh out of a pure heart. 23 (NKJV) But avoid foolish and ignorant disputes, knowing that they generate strife.

Here is an example where Paul takes another step forward in showing that ALL SCRIPTURE which must include the Torah of Yahweh is given by Yahweh, profitable for doctrine, for reproof and instruction in righteousness

2Tim 3:16 (NKJV) All Scripture [is] given by inspiration of Yahweh, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness,17 that the man of Yahweh may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work.

Now in conclusion I must say that there would have to be very little doubt that according to these verses in which Paul spoke, he certainly upheld the Torah as the very definition of righteousness and holiness. And he taught that breaking these commandments were Unrighteousness, Torahlessness, wickedness, and most importantly, SIN. Therefore we can conclude that whenever Paul speaks of Sin..he most certainly is talking about disobeying the commandments in the Torah. How many more scriptures could be added where Paul speaks against sin? This study would certainly be many pages long! Therefore, we can see that it must have been obvious to Paul as well as quite obvious to his followers that Torah obedience was expected. I believe that many of the details of Torah observance were worked out in their public meetings as well as in the synagogues (see where James made the decision in Acts 15 that the Gentiles would learn the Torah on the synagogues every Sabbath). Now I ask that anyone responding to this post to not just respond to one scripture or point here or there...but to respond to all of it. May Yahweh lead us into the the truth and into His Kingdom by His wonderful Spirit which is the word of Yahweh. (John 6:63) One final quote

Roma 8:6-7 For to be carnally minded is death, but to be spiritually minded is life and peace. Because the carnal mind is enmity against Yahweh; for it is not subject to the law of Yahweh, nor indeed can be.

With love in His service,

EliYah

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