Q. I am researching what Islam teaches about intermarriage with non-Muslims. I know that Quran 2:221 and 24:3 forbid Muslims, men and women alike, to marry idolaters (for example, Hindus) unless the idolaters convert to Islam, while 5:5 permits men to marry "chaste" women from People of the Book. I understand that a non-Moslem man of whatever religion is compelled to embrace Islam if he is to marry a Moslem woman. Why is there this apparent double standard and does this not contradict verse 2:256, that there should not be any compulsion in religion? Also, what is the citation for this prohibition?
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A. Thanks for your e-mail about intermarriage of Muslims and Non-Muslims.
In Islam, there are a few regulations which are different for men and women. One is clothing, another are the requirements for Jummah (Friday) Prayer, another is allowances for prayer and fasting due to physical occurrences in the body like pregnancy and menstruation. In Islam, the person responsible for the household is the man. He will be held accountable for the welfare of the rest of the family. He is to fulfill this responsibility in cooperation of the rest of the family, particularly the wife.
A woman raised in a Muslim family will have this relationship known to her from the time she is a young child and will be ready to cooperate with him so he can fulfill his responsibility. If she were to marry a non-Muslim her religious practices would be compromised and she could be placed in the position of having to choose between God and her husband. Islam will not put her in that position.
In the case of the man marrying a non-Muslim, he is still the head of the house and would not require his wife to do anything immoral or against her religion. Islam required that a Muslim respect all religions and not persecute anyone because of their religion.
There is a verse in the Qur'an prohibiting a Muslim woman from marrying a non-Muslim man. It is in Surah 60, verse 10, which states:
"O ye who believe! When believing women come unto you as fugitives, examine them. Allah is best aware of their faith. Then, if ye know them for true believers, send them not back unto the disbelievers. They are not lawful for the disbelievers, nor are the disbelievers lawful for them..."A person becomes a Muslim by his acceptance of the beliefs of Islam and the willingness to act accordingly to the practices of Islam. A person who says he has accepted Islam so that he can marry a Muslim woman is fooling himself and her. Religion is a personal thing which is first accepted inside a person's mind. After acceptance, then it is expected that the rules will be obeyed. Therefore there is not citation allowing a man to accept Islam solely to marry a Muslim woman. There is no contradiction with verse 2:256 because marriage is not a reason for conversion.
I hope this answers your questions. If you have more questions please let me know.
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