I was contemplating the Roman term “co-redemptress” and had a few questions concerning this new wind of doctrine. If it was necessary for Mary to be present at all Roman masses, since she is a “co- redemptress” and “co-mediatrix”, then why would Mary have been excluded from the last supper? Wouldn’t have Jesus been setting up the standard by which all the churches of God should follow, yet there is no mention of Mary’s presence at what Rome says is the “institution” of the “sacrifice” of the mass? (Impossible for it to have been a “sacrifice” since Jesus was still alive - read Heb.9:16-17) But now Rome wants everyone to accept that Mary’s presence is a requirement that the church has always taught. We have the record of the early church in the New Testament, and there is no such scripture to support this blasphemous title. Yet, we are constantly hearing anti-scriptural doctrine from men who are devoid of spiritual discernment. A good case in point is a gentlemen named Peter Lappin who wrote:

"All her life Mary exercised her salvific activity. At the crucifixtion, Christ drew His mother into His suffering in order to associate her with His redeeming act. He received her dedication, love and merits and integrated her agony into His own person so that He could offer them to the Father for the salvation of mankind.” (Call of the Ages, Petrisko, 294)

Now where in the scriptures does it say that Jesus offered up Mary’s merits for the atonement of mankind? This is a blatant lie!!! Rome goes on to say:

"This liturgical emphasis on the Sorrows of Mary following the Feast of the Exaltation of the Holy Cross shows the primordial place given by the Church to Our Lady in the plan of Redemption and what place she should have in the devotion of Christians REDEEMED BY THE BLOOD OF CHRIST AND THE TEARS OF HIS DEAR MOTHER."

The Bible is very clear that the new testament is sealed in the blood...not tears! When Jesus prophesied at the last supper of His death, He said:

“...FOR THIS IS MY BLOOD OF THE NEW TESTAMENT, which is shed for many for the remission of sins. But I say unto you, I will not drink henceforth of this FRUIT OF THE VINE, until that day when I DRINK IT NEW with you in my Father’s kingdom.” (Matt.26:28-29) (Emphasis mine)

Where is the mention of Mary? Where is the mention of her “tears”? Why did Jesus neglect to mention His own mother’s involvement in His sacrifice if it were so crucial to our salvation? The scriptures are clear:

“Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved." (Acts 4:12)

Again we go to the Bible as our source of all truth:“For through him we both have access by one Spirit unto the Father.” (Eph.2:18) Rome adds another “spirit” and the Bible warns us about that (2 Cor.11:4) If any man preach any other gospel....let him be accursed (Gal.1:8

by Rebecca A. Sexton

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