Matthew 25:31-32, "When the Son of Man arrives in His glory, and all the angels with Him, then he will sit down on his glorious throne. 32. "And all the nations will be gathered before Him, and He will separate people one from another…" Now Acts 17:31, "Because he has set a day in which He purposes to judge the inhabited earth…By a man whom He has appointed, and…resurrected Him from the dead." Now John 5:22, "For the Father judges no one at all, but He has committed all the judging to the Son." Ask, according to these verses and especially 5:22, isn’t it right to say that Jesus is the only Judge? Go to Romans 14:10, "…For we shall all stand before the judgment seat of GOD." First of all ask them if they have a Kingdom Interlinear; if so look up this verse and show them that in the Greek it should be "judgment seat of Christ", not GOD. The Greek work for Christ is "Christo’s", and the Greek for GOD is "Theos". Next remind them that according to John 5:22, Christ is the Judge. While on this thought have them turn to 2 Corinthians 5:10, "For we must all be made manifest before the judgment seat of Christ…" Ask, if there are two judgment seats? Go back to Romans 14:10 and ask if it isn’t more likely that the Watchtower mistranslated this verse purposely because if they left it as "Christ" that it would too strongly imply that Jesus was Jehovah? Now read verse 11, "…says Jehovah, to me every knee will bend down, and every tongue will make open acknowledgment to GOD." Now look at Philippians 2:10-11, "So that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend of those in Heaven and those on earth and those under the ground. 11. And every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord…" Ask, according to Romans 14:11 it is Jehovah that every knee will bow to, and here it is Jesus. They will probably respond that in Philippians it is done to the glory of the Father. In response; that is not the issue, the point is that in Romans 14:11 which is a quote from Isaiah 45:23. Both of these scriptures clearly say that these acts will be done "to" Jehovah, and Philippians 2:10-11 states that they are done to Jesus. There is a contradiction unless they are one and the same. The question is not to whose glory the act is done, the question is to Whom it is done.

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