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 The Gospel of Barnabas: Why Muslims
Shouldn’t Use ItBy Alano
Perez
 In discussing the Gospel of Barnabas (GOB),
there are so many arguments from both sides as to the validity of the Gospel.
Some Muslim sites claim that it is more accurate than the KJV and the NIV. They
claim that Irenaeus quoted from it. They state that it has been found to exist
on sixth century documents. They claim that it was the "original"
Gospel. Many of these claims are based on assumptions. As we shall see, many of
these assumptions, when exposed, should reveal the flaws in the GOB.
 Assumption One: It Could Not Have Been Written
by a Muslim Because it Contradicts the Quran
 This is an argument used by many Muslim sites to justify
their use of the GOB. "Why would a Muslim write a book that contradicts the
Quran?" they ask. They argue that no Muslim would write a false Gospel that
contradicts the Quran at points. This, however, assumes that a doctrinally
learned writer would have had to compose the GOB. The more logical hypothesis is
that a Muslim who was ignorant of the faith wrote the book (who would not know
that the Messiah and the Christ are the same thing, for example, or who would
not know the Muslim teaching about seven heavens). The real reason that
Christians object is twofold.   First, it demonstrates that Muslims who use the
GOB are more interested in bashing Christianity than doing real Islamic
apologetics. (Refuting Christianity is not the same thing as proving Islam.) It
also shows a sorry desperation to put Muhammad into the Bible.   Second,
and more important, is that it shows that if the GOB is correct, then even the
Quran is false! Thus, using the GOB is much like using atheist material
to bash Christianity; within a few pages of the same book, Islam will probably
be trashed too! Assumption Two: The Gospel is More Reliable than
the KJV or NIV
 This is a claim made on many sites. However, such a claim
can be easily debunked. First, there are thousands of manuscripts verifying the
KJV and NIV. (One can even look at the Jewish Publication Society Old Testament
to see remarkable similarities between the Christian KJV and this Jewish Bible.)
No such manuscript attestation is possible for the GOB. Unfortunately, this claim shows the outright hypocrisy of
Muslims! Muslims often claim that the four Biblical Gospels have been
"corrupted" because there are no Hebrew or Aramaic texts, which are
supposedly the "original languages". This is totally bogus. We have
the Peshitta (a Syriac version of the New Testament) with which we can check the
Greek texts.  Second, there is no evidence that Greek is not the original New
Testament language, despite what Muslims say. Even so, many polemicists would
have you believe that the New Testament has come to us in English via this route
(and, by definition, these translations are corrupt): 
  Aramaic (Syriac) or Hebrew (no proof for these
  languages) à Greek à English Why do I say that this claim shows that the Muslims who
back the GOB are hypocritical is because we have NO Greek or Aramaic/Hebrew
texts to confirm the GOB. The way that the supposed "gospel" got to us
is through MORE STEPS THAN THE KJV OR NIV: 
  Aramaic/Hebrew à (Greek) à Spanish à Italian à
  English (or Arabic, Urdu, etc.) This demonstrates that, according to Muslim logic, the GOB
is inherently MORE CORRUPT than the NIV or KJV. The KJV and NIV were translated
straight from the original language; the GOB is at least three times removed
from the original Hebrew or Aramaic. The hypocrisy is incredible! The KJV
(translated straight from the Greek) is corrupt, yet the GOB (translated from Italian,
a language that didn’t even exist in the first century) is the
"gospel truth"! Clearly, if the NIV is corrupt, then the GOB is most
definitely corrupt. The KJV and NIV are based on hundreds
of manuscripts that are thousands of years old; the GOB is based on a singular
15th century manuscript! Assumption Three: The Pre-Islam Gospel is the
Same as the 15th Century Gospel
 This assumption is very important. Why? First, there is no
manuscript evidence to support the claim that they are the same. Between the 6th
century and the 15th, we hear nothing of the GOB. This leaves open an
eight hundred years period for someone to make a forgery. Thus, there is
ample reason to believe that they are not the same (especially keeping in mind
the many anachronisms found in the GOB). Assumption Four: Pre-Islam Christians Would Have
Had a Reason to Conceal the Gospel
 Why, if, according to the Quran, the early Christians were
faithful "Muslims," would there be any reason to conceal the GOB? If
it were truly believed by the early Church that it was written by the apostle
Barnabas, why would the Church want to destroy it? If it were so canonical, why
would the Church want to destroy a work that Ante-Nicene Fathers, such as
Irenaeus, quoted from? If it was so believed, then why do we have evidence that
people were already worshipping Jesus as God in the second and third centuries,
over a hundred years BEFORE the 325 council of Nicaea? Clearly, if it did exist,
no one took it seriously.  After all, it does say that
Jesus wasn’t the Messiah!   The fact that it was "banned" in
the first place (BEFORE the Advent of Muhammad) is proof in itself (if the
gospel we have now is the same as the pre-Islam gospel) that no one really
believed in it. Assumption Five: All "Apocryphal"
Books were Heretical
 Another assumption is that the reason that many books
(such as the GOB) were not included in the final canon is because they were
heretical. However, this, is totally false. There are many books that were not
accepted in the New Testament canon. Most of these were rejected not because
they did not line up with Christian teaching, but because they were known to be
MYTHS: 
  The following accounts we found in the book of Joseph
  the high-priest, called, by some Caiphas: He relates, that Jesus spake even
  when he was in the cradle, and said to his mother: Mary, I am Jesus the Son
  of God, that word which thou didst bring forth according to the
  declaration of the angel Gabriel to thee, and my father has sent me for the
  salvation of the world [1 Infancy 1:1]. Here we see a story in which Jesus called Himself the Son
of God while still in the cradle. Why would the Church Fathers not have wanted
to put this book into their New Testament? Perhaps it was because they knew it
was legend. 
  Thomas, an Israelite judged it necessary to make known
  to our brethren among the Gentiles, the actions and miracles of Christ in his
  childhood, which our Lord and God Jesus Christ wrought after his birth
  in Bethlehem in our country, at which I myself was astonished; the beginning
  of which was as followeth [2 Infancy 1:1]. Here we see that, in an "apocryphal" book, Jesus
is explicitly called "our Lord and God." This would have settled all
disputes in the Arian controversy. However, this book was rejected, not because
it didn’t jive with current teaching, but because it was known to be a forgery
and myth. 
  O Lord, Jesus and Father, who art God,
  also the resurrection and life of the dead, give us leave to declare thy
  mysteries, which we saw after death, belonging to thy cross; for we are
  sworn by thy name [Nicodemus 13:1]. This is as much as God allowed us to relate to you; give
  ye therefore praise and honour to him, and repent, and he will have mercy upon
  you. Peace be to you from the Lord God Jesus Christ, and the Saviour of us
  all. Amen, Amen, Amen [Nicodemus 21:6]. Here we see Jesus, along with the Father, called God.
Moreover, we see that Jesus was crucified and is the one through whom we gain
everlasting life. Again, there would have been no doctrinal reason to conceal
such a book. The reason it did not make it into the New Testament is because it
was not considered an inspired work. 
  There is one physician, both fleshy and spiritual; made
  and not made; God incarnate; true life in death; both of Mary and of God;
  first passible, then impassible; even Jesus Christ our Lord
  [Ignatius’s Epistle to Ephesians 2:7]. For our God Jesus Christ was according to the
  dispensation of God conceived in the womb of Mary, of the seed of David, by
  the Holy Ghost; he was born and baptized, that through his passion he might
  purify water, to the washing away of sin [Ephesians 4:9]. There is one Lord Jesus Christ, than whom nothing
  is better. Wherefore come ye all together as unto one temple of God; as to
  one altar, as to one Jesus Christ; who proceeded from one Father, and
  exists in one, and is returned to one [Magnesians 2:11]. Here we see Jesus called God incarnate and flat-out called
God. The excerpt from Magnesians also says that Jesus "proceeds from the
Father" and "exists as one" with Him. However, these books were
not considered canonical or inspired. If the sole reason books were rejected is
because they did not match or conform to the "corrupt Trinitarian
doctrine" of the fourth century, then why didn’t any of these clearly
pro-Trinity works make it into the canon? The fact of the matter is, books were not rejected merely
because they did not "fit" the theology of the day. They were accepted
or rejected depending on their inspiration. If the GOB that supposedly existed
in the 6th century is the same one we have today, it was rejected
because it was not inspired, just like all the above pro-Trinity books.
Moreover, as we can see, not all the apocryphal books were destroyed; we have
these works to this day. (In fact, there are several lost letters that probably
would have been considered canonical if we still had them today.) The fact is, if
the original GOB is the same as the one we have today, it was probably rejected
because it was known to be legend or myth. Assumption Six: The GOB Was Written by an
Apostle Who Knew Jesus
 It is true that Barnabas knew Jesus; it is NOT true, that
He was ever an "apostle" in the meaningful sense of being a member of
the Twelve. First, we can see from Matthew (10:2-4), that the apostles were as
follows: 
  Now the names of the twelve apostles are these; The
  first, Simon, who is called Peter, and Andrew his brother; James
  the son of Zebedee, and John his brother; Philip, and Bartholomew;
  Thomas, and Matthew the publican; James the son of Alphaeus,
  and Lebbaeus, whose surname was Thaddaeus; Simon the Canaanite,
  and Judas Iscariot, who also betrayed him. In Luke (6:13-16), we read something similar: 
  And when it was day, he called to him his disciples: and
  of them he chose twelve, whom also he named apostles; Simon, (whom he
  also named Peter,) and Andrew his brother, James and John,
  Philip and Bartholomew, Matthew and Thomas, James
  the son of Alphaeus, and Simon called Zelotes, And Judas the
  brother of James, and Judas Iscariot, which also was the
  traitor." After Jesus’ ascension, a new apostle was needed. Luke (in Acts) tells us how the new apostle was chosen: 
  And in those days Peter stood up in the middle of the
  disciples, and said, (the number of names together were about an hundred and
  twenty,) Men and brothers, this scripture must needs have been fulfilled,
  which the Holy Ghost by the mouth of David spoke before concerning Judas,
  which was guide to them that took Jesus. For he was numbered with us, and had
  obtained part of this ministry. Now this man purchased a field with the reward
  of iniquity; and falling headlong, he burst asunder in the middle, and all his
  bowels gushed out. And it was known to all the dwellers at Jerusalem; so as
  that field is called in their proper tongue, Aceldama, that is to say, The
  field of blood. For it is written in the book of Psalms, Let his habitation be
  desolate, and let no man dwell therein: and his position as bishop let another
  take. Why of these men which have companied with us all the time that the Lord
  Jesus went in and out among us, Beginning from the baptism of John, to that
  same day that he was taken up from us, must one be ordained to be a witness
  with us of his resurrection. And they appointed two, Joseph
  called Barsabas, who was surnamed Justus, and Matthias.
  And they prayed, and said, You, Lord, which know the hearts of all men, show
  whether of these two you have chosen, That he may take part of this ministry
  and apostleship, from which Judas by transgression fell, that he might go to
  his own place. And they gave forth their lots; and the lot fell on
  Matthias; and he was numbered with the eleven apostles [Acts
  1:15-26]. Here we see that Barnabas was not
even chosen as a replacement for Judas! He was never one of the
Twelve! Moreover, Levi (the tax collector, Matthew) and
John both knew Jesus personally, and Ireneaus believed them to be authors of the
Gospels attributed to them (See Lee Strobel’s The Case for Christ,
page 29). If Muslims consider the GOB credible because Irenaeus supposedly
quoted from it, they should believe that his claim that Matthew, Mark, Luke, and
John wrote the Gospels bearing their names for the same reason. (It was the
Epistle of Barnabas that he used, but we’ll get to that later.) Because
Barnabas was never an apostle of Jesus, we should not consider his report (even
if the GOB was truly written by him) more credible than Matthew or John’s
record of events. What about Luke or Mark’s? We’ll discuss them shortly. Assumption Seven:  The Other Writers Would Have
Had to Copy Barnabas
 This assumes two things. First, it assumes that Barnabas
was a "true" apostle. This was not the case. Matthew
and John knew Jesus personally and would not have had to copy him
(especially not John, who was part of Jesus’ inner circle with James
and Peter). Moreover, John Mark, who was related to Barnabas, most likely
would have copied from Peter, who was part of Jesus’ inner circle of apostles,
and not Barnabas, who was never even a member of the Twelve. Luke, who got
around to just about everybody, also could have copied Mark but obtained other
information. Simply put, there is no reason to believe that the four Gospel
writers would have had to copy from Barnabas. Second, this assumption assumes that there was an original
Gospel. According to Muslims, it was written by Barnabas. Is this belief sound?
No.  First, it contradicts the notion that Jesus received a literal book from
heaven. If they had a book already from Jesus, why would the other writers have
had to copy Barnabas?  Second, many read too much into the "titles"
"the Gospel According to ..." All "gospel" means is
"good news." Thus the "Gospel According to John" is
"the good news according to John," or John’s account of the good
news. There is no evidence that such a primordial, original Gospel (Q) ever
existed in the Islamic book form (a literal book from heaven). In fact, there is
biblical evidence against this notion, found in a passage that Muslims love to
use: 
  
  And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another
  Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever;
  [John 14:16] Who is this Comforter? Ask just about any Islamic
apologist and you’ll get the answer Muhammad. Let’s see what else the
Comforter will do: 
  But the Comforter, which is the
  Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall
  teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatever
  I have said to you [John 14:26]. This verse, by itself, refutes the Muslim claim that there
existed a book called the Gospel that Jesus gave His apostles. Why would
Jesus need to send someone to teach the apostles all things if He left them a
book with all His teachings in it? And why would they need to copy from this
book if the Comforter was going to bring all things to their remembrance?
The answer is, because there was no "book." The Holy Spirit (the
Comforter) came to the apostles, and it was by the power of Him that they were
able to preach and write the Gospels (at least John and Matthew; Luke could have
copied from Mark, who learned from Peter). If the apostles had a
"Gospel" in their hands, the Comforter would be useless; they would
already have possessed all of Jesus’ teachings and no one would need to bring
anything to their remembrance. The fact of the matter is
that no "original" Gospel (at least not in the Islamic sense) ever
existed. The Comforter was sent to the apostles to remind them of Jesus
and His teachings so that they could preach. Further, we see that this verse
also refutes the claim that Muhammad was the Comforter: 
  But the Comforter, which is the
  Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in
  my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to
  your remembrance, whatever I have said to you [John 14:26]. This verse says that the Comforter was to come in the name
of JESUS. In whose name did Muhammad come? The Quran tells us over a hundred
times: 
  In the name of Allah, the Compassionate, the Merciful. These words appear at the beginning of every Sura except
the ninth, and clearly demonstrate that Muhammad did NOT come in the name of
Jesus. Thus, he was not the subject of the "Comforter" prophecy. The
only way that Muhammad can be said to have come in the name of Jesus is if Jesus
(Isa) is Allah. However, this concept is contradicted by the Quran itself: 
  They indeed have disbelieved who say: Lo! Allah
  is the Messiah, son of Mary. Say: Who then can do aught against Allah, if
  He had willed to destroy the Messiah son of Mary, and his mother and everyone
  on earth? Allah's is the Sovereignty of the heavens and the earth and all that
  is between them. He createth what He will. And Allah is Able to do all things
  [Sura 5.17]. They surely disbelieve who say: Lo! Allah is
  the Messiah, son of Mary. The Messiah (himself) said: O Children of
  Israel, worship Allah, my Lord and your Lord. Lo! whoso ascribeth partners
  unto Allah, for him Allah hath forbidden paradise. His abode is the Fire. For
  evil-doers there will be no helpers [Sura 5.72]. Thus, the Quran clearly states that Allah is NOT Jesus,
and therefore, Muhammad, who did not come in the name of Jesus, could not have
been the Comforter. Muhammad, therefore, is proved to be a false prophet (no
evidence of his advent in the Gospels), and if Muhammad was a false prophet,
what does that mean about the Quran and Islam? Assumption Eight: The Testimony of the GOB is
more Reliable than the Testimony of the Apostles
 This is another important factor. Why do the Muslims who
support the GOB think that it is the most accurate? Does the GOB agree with the
teachings of Peter, who most certainly knew Jesus better than Barnabas? If not,
then we can be certain that the GOB is false. What do the Epistles of Peter say? In the GOB, we see this: 
  But Jesus lifted them up, comforting them, and saying:
  "Do not be afraid, I am your master." And he reproved many who
  believed that he had died and risen again, saying: "Do you hold me and
  God for liars? I said to you that God has granted to me to live almost to the
  end of the world. Truly I say to you, I did not die; it was Judas the traitor
  [GOB Chapter 221]. Peter, who knew Jesus far better than Barnabas, said this: 
  Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father,
  through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the
  blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied. Blessed be
  the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, which according to his abundant
  mercy hath begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of
  Jesus Christ from the dead, [1 Peter 1:2] Forasmuch as ye know that ye were not redeemed with
  corruptible things, as silver and gold, from your vain conversation
  received by tradition from your fathers; But with the precious blood
  of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot: Who verily was
  foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these
  last times for you, Who by him do believe in God, that raised him up from
  the dead, and gave him glory; that your faith and hope might be in God.
  Seeing ye have purified your souls in obeying the truth through the Spirit
  unto unfeigned love of the brethren, see that ye love one another with
  a pure heart fervently: [1 Peter 1:18-22] For even hereunto were ye called: because Christ also
  suffered for us, leaving us an example, that ye should follow his steps:
  Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth: Who, when he was
  reviled, reviled not again; when he suffered, he threatened not; but committed
  himself to him that judgeth righteously: Who his own self bare our
  sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live
  unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed. For ye were as sheep
  going astray; but are now returned unto the Shepherd and Bishop of your souls
  [1 Peter 2:21-25]. For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the
  just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in
  the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit: By which also he went and preached
  unto the spirits in prison; Which sometime were disobedient, when once the
  longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a
  preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water. The like
  figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting
  away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward
  God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ: Who is gone into heaven, and
  is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers being made
  subject unto him [1 Peter 3:18-22]. Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the
  flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath
  suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin; [1 Peter 4:1] Should we believe the Gospel of Barnabas, for which we
only have a 14th or 15th century manuscript, or should we
believe the words of Peter, who knew Jesus personally? The GOB says: 
  Having thus spoken, Jesus said: ‘You are just, O Lord
  our God, because to you only belongs honour and glory without end.’ [GOB
  Chapter 220] The Apostle Peter, however, says 
  For so an entrance shall be ministered unto you
  abundantly into the everlasting kingdom of our Lord and Saviour Jesus
  Christ [2 Peter 1:11]. But grow in grace, and in the knowledge of our
  Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ. To him be glory both now and for ever.
  Amen [2 Peter 3:18]. Peter says that we are to honor Jesus and even calls Him
king. That means that either Jesus is God (which refutes the GOB), or someone
besides God deserves glory forever (which would refute the GOB). Are we to
believe one of Jesus’ three best friends, or a Gospel written by someone who
didn’t even know that Messiah and Christ mean the same thing? (In the opening
of the GOB He is called the Christ, but in chapter 42 He says that He is not the
Messiah!) The GOB says: 
  Dearly beloved the great and wonderful God hath during
  these past days visited us by his prophet Jesus Christ in great mercy of
  teaching and miracles, by reason whereof many, being deceived of Satan,
  under presence of piety, are preaching most impious doctrine, calling Jesus
  son of God, repudiating the circumcision ordained of God for ever, and
  permitting every unclean meat: among whom also Paul hath been deceived
  [The Opening of the GOB] But Peter says: 
  And account that the longsuffering of our Lord
  is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to
  the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you; As also in all his
  epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard
  to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they
  do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction [2 Peter
  3:15-16]. The Apostle Peter called Paul’s word’s scripture.
Should we believe Peter, who knew Jesus personally, or the author of the GOB,
who doesn’t even know the geography of the Holy Land (Chapter 21)? Since Peter calls Paul’s words scriptures, we should see
what he says. What did Paul say? 
  For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish
  foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God [1
  Corinthians 1:18]. Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of
  you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace [Galatians 5:4]. But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off
  are made nigh by the blood of Christ. For he is our peace, who hath made
  both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;
  Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of
  commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of
  twain one new man, so making peace; [Ephesians 2:13-15] For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath
  appeared to all men, Teaching us that, denying ungodliness and worldly lusts,
  we should live soberly, righteously, and godly, in this present world; Looking
  for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our
  Saviour Jesus Christ; [Titus 2:11-13] If this is what Paul teaches, and Peter, who knew Jesus
personally, called Paul’s letters scripture, I think I better believe what
Paul said! There are many instances in which the GOB
contradicts John, who knew Jesus personally as well. (The contradictions begin
at John 1:1!) However, aside from these contradictions, there are
contradictions which irreconcilably refute the GOB. Where are these
contradictions? In the EPISTLE of Barnabas. There are many contradictions in the
GOB, so I think that if they can believe that the GOB was written by Barnabas,
they should at least look at the Epistle ascribed to him (even though it too is
a bit too late to be his writing). Many Muslims argue that Barnabas’s view
differed from that of Paul to a great extent and that this is the reason the GOB
is so different from other Christian writings. So, to see whether there is
support for this claim, we should examine Barnabas’s Epistle. What does it
say? 
  For God has manifested to us by all the prophets, that
  he has no occasion for our sacrifices, or burnt offerings, or oblations:
  saying thus; To what purpose is the multitude of your sacrifices unto me,
  saith the Lord. I am full of the burnt-offerings of rams, and the fat of fed
  beasts; and I delight not in the blood of bullocks, or of he-goats. When ye
  come to appear before me; who hath required this at your hands? Ye shall no
  more tread my courts. Bring no more vain oblations, incense is an abomination
  unto me; your new moons and sabbaths; the calling of assemblies I cannot away
  with, it is iniquity, even the solemn meeting; your new moons and your
  appointed feasts my soul hateth. These things therefore hath God abolished,
  that the new law of our Lord Jesus Christ, which is without the yoke of
  any such necessity, might have the spiritual offering of men themselves
  [Epistle of Barnabas 2:4-8]. This sounds to me like what Paul was preaching about the
abolition of the law. 
  Again; What says Moses to Jesus [Joshua] the Son of Nun,
  when he gave that name unto him, as being a prophet that all the people might
  hear him alone, because the Father did manifest all things concerning his
  son Jesus, in Jesus the Son of Nun; and gave him that name when he sent
  him to spy out the land of Canaan; he said: Take a book in thine hands, and
  write what the Lord saith: Forasmuch as Jesus the Son of God shall in the last
  days cut off by the roots all the house of Amalek. See here again Jesus,
  not the son of man, but the Son of God, made manifest in a type and in the
  flesh [11:12]. We see here that Epistle of Barnabas taught that Jesus was
both the Son of God and made manifest in the flesh (implying His Godhood). Both
of these concepts are contradictory to the testimony of the Gospel of Barnabas.
Clearly, if Muslims can believe that the GOB is credible, for which we only have
an Italian manuscript from the 14th or 15th century, then
they should be able to believe that the Epistle of Barnabas (written between 70
AD and 150 AD) was also a good representation of early Christian belief. This in
itself disproves the validity of the GOB. Reasons NOT to Use the Gospel of Barnabas
 Thus far I have shown the many assumptions made by GOB-ist
Muslims and demonstrated the error of these assumptions. There are, however, a
few reasons that a Muslim should not use the GOB aside from the flaws of these
assumptions. First, as I have shown, it is a twice-removed
translation. If the KJV and NIV are corrupt purely by virtue of being
translated ONCE (from Greek into English) or even TWICE (from Hebrew/Aramaic to
Greek to English), then the GOB should be even more corrupt; it has supposedly
gone from Aramaic/Hebrew to Spanish to Italian to English. It is only fair that
they should hold the GOB to the same standard as the normal Bibles, isn’t it? Second,
the GOB contradicts the Quran. If the GOB is accurate enough to refute
the Bible, then it is accurate enough to refute the Quran in its claims that
Muhammad was the Messiah (Jesus is the only Messiah in the Quran) or about the
number of heavens. Third, and most importantly, it
undermines an important claim found in the Quran: 
  And believe in that which I reveal, confirming that
  which ye possess already (of the Scripture), and be not first to
  disbelieve therein, and part not with My revelations for a trifling price, and
  keep your duty unto Me [Sura 2.41]. And when there cometh unto them a scripture from Allah, confirming
  that in their possession - though before that they were asking for a
  signal triumph over those who disbelieved - and when there cometh unto them
  that which they know (to be the truth) they disbelieve therein. The curse of
  Allah is on disbelievers [2.89]. And when it is said unto them: Believe in that which
  Allah hath revealed, they say: We believe in that which was revealed unto us.
  And they disbelieve in that which cometh after it, though it is the truth
  confirming that which they possess. Say (unto them, O Muhammad): Why then
  slew ye the prophets of Allah aforetime, if ye are (indeed) believers? [2.91] And when there cometh unto them a messenger from Allah, confirming
  that which they possess, a party of those who have received the Scripture
  fling the Scripture of Allah behind their backs as if they knew not, [2.101] When Allah made (His) covenant with the prophets, (He
  said): Behold that which I have given you of the Scripture and knowledge. And
  afterward there will come unto you a messenger, confirming that which ye
  possess. Ye shall believe in him and ye shall help him. He said: Do ye
  agree, and will ye take up My burden (which I lay upon you) in this (matter)? They
  answered: We agree. He said: Then bear ye witness. I will be a witness with
  you [3.81]. Each Sura above demonstrates that the Quran claims to
confirm the Bible that the Christians had in their possession at the time of
Muhammad. (Notice all the present tense: that which they possess, that in
their possession, NOT that which they possessed or that which WAS in their
possession.) This demonstrates two things. First, it demonstrates that the
author of the Quran did not consider the Torah and Gospel corrupt; if he did,
why would he claim that it CONFIRMS that which the people HAD AT THE TIME? (Did
it confirm the corruption and the "contradictions"?) Second, and more
importantly, it demonstrates that the author considered it possible to prove the
validity of Islam and the Quran using that which was in the people’s
possession. We can be certain that the GOB was not in the people’s possession;
if it had been, it surely would have received a lot of attention. What are we to make of this then? Well, if Muslims must
use works that are NOT part of what the people of Muhammad’s day possessed,
that clearly goes to show that the Gospels are lacking in prophecies of
Muhammad. If not, then why bother with the GOB? The sad truth is that by using
the GOB, Muslims are proving that Muhammad did NOT confirm that which the
Christians of his day possessed, and that for that reason it is necessary to
find another gospel that the Quran does confirm. Thus, by using the GOB, the
Muslim is giving the Christian even more proof of the non-existence of
biblical prophecies that point to Muhammad. This leads to a serious question: if
the Quran was wrong about there being prophecies of Muhammad in the Bible, could
it also be wrong about the crucifixion or the Trinity? If the Quran is false
about something like confirming previous scriptures, can we trust the words
therein to save our souls? Peter warned about the coming of things like the GOB: 
  But there were false prophets also
  among the people, even as there shall be false teachers among you, who
  privily shall bring in damnable heresies, even denying the Lord that
  bought them, and bring upon themselves swift destruction. And many
  shall follow their pernicious ways; by reason of whom the way of truth
  shall be evil spoken of. And through covetousness shall they with feigned
  words make merchandise of you: whose judgment now of a long time lingereth
  not, and their damnation slumbereth not. [2 Peter 2:1-3] Could it be that Peter’s word’s have been fulfilled?
Has there been a prophet who brought in "damnable heresies," denied
that the Lord has bought us, led many astray, and used people for their money?
If you’re a Muslim, you need to ask yourself: who Peter was talking about? I
pray that you would be freed from the "heresy" of Muhammad and come to
know the Lord Jesus Christ! 
 Other References:  http://www.answering-islam.org/Green/barnabas.htm http://www.answering-islam.org/Barnabas/contra.html http://www.biblefacts.org/church/gosbarn.html  
 Other Articles of
Interest:
 
  a) Christian Views - Frequently
  Asked Questions (FAQ)  
   b) Muslims Views - FAQ   c) Christianity & Islam
  Views  
 
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